Education and Career Forum

previous years question papers relating to recruitment of engineers in Steel Authority of India

SAIL Management Trainee Recruitment MT Syllabus and Exam pattern For 2010

Time Allowed : 145 Minutes (Consolidated)

Reasoning – 45 marks

Quantitative Aptitude- 35 marks

General Awareness- 35 marks

English Language- 35 marks

Technical Paper (Engineering )-100 marks.

1. If ‘JANTA’ is coded as ‘26’ and DEPOSIT as ‘52’. How can be the code number for ‘JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME’?
1. 265276
2. 265213
3. 265287
4. 2652104
2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded?
1. NZESZR
2. LZESZT
3. LZCQZR
4. NBESBT
3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE
1. DGEF
2. EFGD
3. EGFD
4. GFDE
4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ?
1. Train : Car
2. Bruise : Fall
3. Television : Dial
4. Locusts : Holocaust
5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to
1. arms
2. face
3. body
4. nerves

Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions.
Statements:
1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards.
2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom.
3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo.
4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess.

6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo
1. Sudhir
2. Pappu
3. Sham
4. Ram
8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo
1. Ram
2. Sham
3. Pappu
4. Sudhir
9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest?
1. Sudha
2. Mugdha
3. Madhubala
4. Data inadequate
10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by an odd number?
8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 ? 3 8 9 4 $ 5 9
1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Six

Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as:
1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country’s economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.

11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy.
12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years.
13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India.

Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit.
(3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) if both I and II are implicit.
14. STATEMENT:
“Use chlorine tablets for drinking water.” A notice by municipal authority.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.
15. STATEMENT:
If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a great achievement in the field of education
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools.
II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly.
16. STATEMENT:
Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. These types of news are always in headlines.
II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital.

17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2
18. mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n
1. mmmm
2. nnnn
3. mnmn
4. nmnm

Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events ‘R’ and ‘S’. You have to read both the events ‘R’ and ‘S’ and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘R’ and ‘S’ are true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Give answer as:
1. If ‘R’ is the effect and ‘S’ is its immediate principal cause.
2. If ‘R’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘S’ is its effect.
3. If ‘R’ is its effect but ‘S’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If ‘S’ is an effect but ‘R’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
5. None of these
19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days.
Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price.
20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months.
Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer.

Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part.

21. ‘DCBA’ is related to ‘ZYXW’ in the same way as ‘HGFE’ is related to
1. RSTU
2. VUTS
3. STVU
4. UVST
22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
1. 41
2. 65
3. 56
4. 60
23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown
2. Cap
3. Tie
4. Coat

Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second letter of the so formed new word.
24. SPECULATION
1. A
2. D
3. L
4. P
25. Which does not cope with others in the following?
1. navigator
2. sailor
3. pilot
4. narrator

Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
5. if both I and II follow
26. STATEMENTS:
1. No table is chair.
2. Some chairs are stools.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tables are not stools.
II. Some stools are not tables.
27. STATEMENTS:
1. All magazines are books.
2. No book is novel.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. No novel is book.
II. No magazine is novel.
28. STATEMENTS:
1. Some tulips are roses.
2. Some roses are daffodils.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tulips are roses.
II. All roses are tulips.

Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer as:
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged?
STATEMENT:
I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it ‘O’ was staged.
II. There is a gap of one day between N and O.
30. In a certain code language “Pit Lit Nit” means “Red Paint Shirt”. What is the code for “Paint”?
STATEMENT:
I. In that code language “Nit Lit Rit Bit” means “Wash Red Paint Now”.
II. In that code language “Jit Cit Pit” means “Shirt is Dirty”.

31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ?
1. 24732
2. 23782
3. 27772
4. 27872
5. None of these

32. 13frac{2}{7} + 4frac{3}{5} + 4frac{5}{7} - ? = 9frac{4}{5}
1.13frac{3}{5}

2. 12frac{4}{5}

3. 13frac{2}{5}
4 14frac{3}{5}

5. 12frac{3}{5}

33. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ?
1. 10495
2. 10365
3. 10685
4. 10915
5. 10725

34. frac{{(53 + 12)}}{{325}} = frac{?}{{(42 + 23)}}

1. 325
2. 75
3. 65
4. 13
5. 31

35. sqrt ? + 624 = 60 % of 1250 99
1. 784
2. 729
3. 576
4. 676
5. 841

36. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is
1. 99999
2. 99990
3. 99909
4. 99099
5. None of these

37. The ratio of 3.5 kg to 280 gm is
1. 2 : 25
2. 4 : 5
3. 25 : 2
4. 5 : 4
5. None of these

38. The compound ratio of 3 : 4, 8 : 15, 25 : 28 is
1. 3 : 28
2. 5 : 14
3. 14 : 5
4. 28 : 3
5. None of these

39. The least among the ratios 5 : 6, 7 : 8, 2 : 3, and 9 : 17 is
1. 5 : 6
2. 7 : 8
3. 2 : 3
4. 9 : 17
5. None of these

40. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is
1. 40 years
2. 45 years
3. 50 years
4. 55 years
5. None of these

41. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two vessels are mixed together, then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 5 : 3
4. 3 : 5
5. None of these

42. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs. 850 is
1. Rs. 19.40
2. Rs. 9.80
3. Rs. 10.20
4. Rs. 10.80
5. None of these

43. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the number
1. does not change
2. decreases by 2%
3. increases by 4%
4. decreases by 4%
5. None of these

44. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. The daily money receipts are then increased by
1. 8%
2. 10%
2. 12%
4. 50%
5. None of these

45. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%. To restore to its original, the new price must be increased by
1. 9frac{1}{{11}}%

2. 10 %
2. 11%
4. 11frac{1}{9}%

5. 15%
46. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is
1. Rs. 4.50
2. Rs. 5
3. Rs. 5.50
4. Rs. 8
5. None of these

47. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years. The age of teacher is
1. 37 years
2. 39 years
3. 33 years
4. 47 years
5. None of these

48. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. The age of the new girl is
1. 16.4 yrs
2. 10 yrs
3. 12 yrs
4. 16 yrs
5. 20 yrs

49. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. The average height of the set of 5 new student is
1. 146.2 cm
3. 147 cm
3. 145 cm
4. 146 cm
5. 148 cm

50. Nine men went to a hotel. Eight of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. The total money spent by them was
1. Rs. 260
2. Rs. 262.50
3. Rs. 290
4. Rs. 292.50
5. None of these

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Answer : First Part 1-5: 4,3,3,4,4,Second Part 6-10: 2,2,1,1,2, Third Part 11-15: 1,3,5,5,5, Fourth Part 16-20: 5,4,2,1,3, Fifth Part 21-25: 2,2,1,3,4 Sixth Part 26-30: 2,5,4,4,4, Seventh Part 31-35: 3,2,4,4,2, Eight Part 36-40: 2,3,2,4,1,Ninth Part 41-45: 2,3,4,1,4,Tenth Part 46-50: 2,4,2,4,4 best of luck friend...

SAIL stands for Steel Authority of India Limited. It is one of the largest and the highest produce r of iron and steel in India. The company is an autonomous body and thus finance and operation of the company is independent. The recruitment in Sail is done through an entrance program that comprises of written test and personal interview. The written test paper has numerous objective type questions from various sections. The sections in which the paper is divided are Technical ability, reasoning ability, quantitative aptitude, general knowledge, and vocabulary. The number of questions varies every year, but the duration is fixed, 2 hours and 3 0 minutes. The candidates have to bring sectional cut off marks also in order to clear the test. Below are attached some of the previous years question papers all the best

friend since question papers are also collected with the answer sheets hence its very difficult to get the actual sail qp but still for memory based questions u may visit the recruitment papers webpage at freshersworld.com.also u may visit madeeasy.in for useful tips regarding psu exam preparation.

Dear friend,

You can easily get Previous year question papers for recruitment of SAIL(Steel Authority Of India Ltd.) graduate engg. trainee from www.freshersworld.com .
You can also refer power preparation option in the home page of the same website.

Thank you.

Hi
I attached some model question paper of SAIL.
These paper give an idea of what type of questions are asking in SAIL recruitment papers.

Download and prepare well

BEST OF LUCK

regards
arun