Education and Career Forum

what is the syllabus for bank po exam being held in september by ibps and please give me the guidelines and the name of books to be referred?should i practice from previous year papers?

Here i am attaching some papers
The syllabus for cwe ibps bank po test is, it has four sections
Reasoning
General awareness,marketing,computers
Data integration and
English
books to refer
for Reasoning :rs agarwal reasoning
GA :success mirror and pratyogita darpan magazines
English :Barrons GRE book
DI : BSC publications DI book
Marketing :upkars Marketing aptitude book
for previous papers
Upkars State bank Probationary officers book by TS Jain
here i am attaching some papers

hi
i am attaching some previous papers

i want exam model paper

i want ibps exam model paper

Which books to refer for the IBPS exams 2011? As books publised for IBPS from Upkar publising are unavailable with just exams 3 weeks away

i need IBPS syllubus plz..

Syllabus for IBPS Bank PO Exam? Books and previous year papers to prepare for IBPS Exam?

Medam,
ple sending computer knowledge type of equation send me..Elisha

Whose weightage would be more verbal or non verbal in reasoning

Hi,

Originally Posted by Unregistered

IBPS Bank PO Exam Books and previous year papers to prepare for IBPS Exam?

List of IBPS Bank PO Exam Books

• IBPS Bank PO/MT Probationary Officer/Management Trainee CWE Common Written Examination Practice Work Book Kiran
• Bank Probationary Officers / Management Trainees Exam. Solved Papers Upkar
• Bank PO and Management Trainee Common Written Examination (CWE) (conducted by IBPS) Ramesh
• Bank PO and Management Trainee Common Written Examination (CWE) (conducted by IBPS) Ramesh
• Bank PO Solved Papers (2003-2011) for Probationary Officer (PO)/Management Trainee (MT) Common Written Examination 2011 Kiran

please i want syllabus of po exam

i want to see ibps model question paper

sir, please tell meabout descriptive paper of po will come in hindi or english

sir i want to ibps model question paper & plz tell me descriptive paper will be come totally english?

i want to questions exampul

what type of questions are expected in general awareness section of ibps cwe po 2011? along with questions related to banking industry, what else is expected to be asked in this exam?

all the bank exams are of same kind you can see these papers


SBI BANK PO GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain when India got Independence?
a) Harold Wilson
b) Lloyd George
c) Chamberlain
d) Clement Atlee
Ans : D
2. The Acharya who established “matths” in all the four corners of India
a) Ramanuja
b) Sankara
c) Madhava
d) Vallabha
Ans : B
3. Sir C.V.Raman was the first Nobel Laureate in Physics from the Indian Sub-continent.Who
was the second?
a)Dr.A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
b) Dr.S.S.Bhatnagar
c) Dr.Hargovind Khorana
d)Prof.Abdus Salam of Pakistan
Ans : D
4. Free India’s First Education Minister was
a)M.C. Chagla
b) Maulana Kalam Azad
c) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
d) N.G.Ayyangar
Ans : B
5. Who was the first Viceroy of India ?
a)Lord Clive
b)Lord Warren Hastings
c)Lord Canning
d)Lord Cornwallis
Ans : C
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6. The servants of India society was founded by
a)Blavatsky & Olcott,1866
b)Gopalkrishna Gokhale,1905
c)M.G.Ranade,1867
d)Sir S.A.Khan,1920
Ans : B
7. Under whose Vice Royalty was Tipu Sultan Defeated
a)Lord Cornwallis
b)Lord Wellesley
c)Lord Hastings
d)Lord Canning
Ans : B
8. The famous”Al-Berauni”is associated in Indian history with
a)Mohd.Tughlaq
b) Mohd.Ghori
c)Mahmood of Ghazni
d)Allau-ud-din Khilji.
Ans : C
9. Battle of Buxar was fought in the year
a)1757
b)1764
c)1576
d)1565
Ans : B
10. Kalidas was the court poet of
a)Chandragupta-II
b)Chandragupta Maurya
c)Harshavardhan
d)Kharavela
Ans : A
11. Battle of _______ is associated with Prithviraj & Mohammad Ghori
a)Haldighati
b)Talikota
c)Kanwa
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d)Tarain
Ans : D
12.Second Battle of Panipat was fought in the year _________ ,headed by_________
a)1526,Babur
b)1556,Humayun
c)1556,Akbar
d)1605,Jehangir.
Ans : C
13.The first round table conference was held under the vice royalty of Lord
a)Reading
b)Irwin
c)Wellingdon
d)Mountbatten
Ans : B
14. Who was the last famous Hindu King?
a)Harshavardhan
b)Samudragupta
c)Chandragupta-II
d)Ashoka
Ans : A
15. Who is known as the Indian Napolean?
a) Chandragupta I
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta II
d) Skandagupta
Ans : B
16. The author of historical epithet ‘Rajtarangini” was
a)Kalhana
b) Kalidas
c) Chanakya
d) Banabhatta
Ans : A
HTTP://WWW.UPSCPORTAL.COM
Personal
17. The Kailashnath Temple at Ellora was built by the
a) Rashtrakutas
b) Chalukyas
c) Cholas
d) Pallavas
Ans : A
18. Alexander defeated Porus at the bank of river Jhelum. This battle is famous as the
battle of
a)Wandiwash
b)Hydapses
c) Chausa
d) Khanwa
Ans : B
19. Which governor General abolished the practice of sati?
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) William Bentick
c) Lord Cornwallis
d) Lord Hastings
Ans : B
HTTP://WWW.UPSCPORTAL.COM
20. Lord Curzon is associated with which of the following events?
a) Hunter commission
b) Doctrine of Lapse
c) Partition of Bengal
d) Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
Ans : C
21. Gandhiji first started his Satyagraha Movement in
a) Peitermaritzberg , South Africa
b) Sabarmati, India
c) Johhanesberg, South Africa
d) Dandi, India
Ans : C
22. The “veda” which deals with Ayurvedic system of medicine
a)Rigveda
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b) Samveda
c) Atharavaveda
d) Yajurveda
Ans : C
23. The famous “Economic Drain Theory” was given by
a) Lord Lytton, 1876
b) Swami dayanand,1875
c) Dadabhai Naoroji,1876
d) Lord Northbrook, 1876.
Ans : C
24.The capital of India Was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in the Year
a) 1910
b) 1911
c) 1920
d) 1919
Ans : B
25. Who, among the following , is known for his pioneering work on medicine during the
Gupta period
a) Sudraka
b) Sushruta
c) Shaunaka
d) Saumilla
Ans : B
26. Who was the founder of Indian National Congress ?
a) Dadabhai Naoroji
b) A.O. Hume
c) W.C. Banerji
d) Badrudin Tyabji
Ans : B
27. Jalianwala Bagh Tragedy occurred in which of the following year?
a)1927
b)1942
c) 1920
d) 1919
Ans : D
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28. Brahmo Samaj was founded by
a)Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) Keshab Chandra Sen
c) Swami Vivekanand
d) Swami Dayanand
Ans : A
29. The policy was Subsidiary Alliance was started by
a) Lord Cornwallis
b) Lord Welleseley
c) Lord Canning
d) Lord Hastings
Ans : B
30. The last Mughal Emperor was
a)Bahadur Shah II
b) Shah Alam II
c) Akbar II
d) Alamgir II
Ans : A
31. Sir Thomas Roe was the ambassador of James I to the court of
a)Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shah Jahan
d) Auranzeb
Ans : B
32.Vasco da Gama was a famous ______ traveler.
a) Danish
b) French
c) Portugese
d) Dutch
Ans : C
33. When was American Independence declared ?
a)1776
b)1756
c) 1736
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d) 1746
Ans : A
34. When did Hitler become Chancellor of Germany?
a) 1939
b) 1936
c) 1933
d) 1930
Ans : C
35. The Industrial Revolution was to begin first in
a) USA
b) Japan
c) England
d) (erstwhile)USSR
Ans : C
36. Who wrote Buddha Charita?
a) Bana Bhatta
b) Ashva Ghosa
c) Kalidasa
d) Tulsidas
Ans : B
37.Where was the first factory by the Britishers set up in India in 1612?
a) Pondicherry
b) Surat
c) Cochin
d) Calcutta
Ans : B
38. The principal language of the Dravidians was
a) Kannada
b) Telugu
c) Tamil
d) Malayalam
Ans : B
Personal
39. In which year Ashoka fought the Kalinga War?
a) 58 B.C.
b) 78 B.C.
c) 599 B.C.
d) 261 B.C.
Ans : D
40. When was the Berlin Wall built?
a) 1917
b)1961
c) 1921
d) 1963
Ans : B
41. Which among the following is not the official language of the U.N.O.?
a) Spanish
b) Arabic
c) Chinese
d) Japanese
Ans : D
42. Who suggested the name “United Nations “?
a) John.F.Kennedy
b) Franklin D. Roosevelt
c) Jimmy Carter
d) Napolean Bonaparte
Ans : B
43. Which among the following is the U.N.Foundation Day?
a) 30th oct.1945
b) 24th oct.1945
c) 6th aug.1942
d) 9th aug.1942
Ans : B
44. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is ______
years.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
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d) 9
Ans : D
45. The only Indian Woman who became President of the World Health Organisation so far
was
a) R.K.Amrit Kaur
b) Vijaylakshmi Pandit
c)Sucheta Kriplani
d) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : A
46. Who was the first secretary general of the United Nations?
a) Kurt Waldheim of Austria
b) Dag Hammarskjoeld of Sweden
c) U. Thant of Burma
d) Trygve Lie of Norway.
Ans : D
47. The hundred sons of Dhritarashtra had one sister.What was her name?
a) Duhsala
b) Trishala
c) Kunti
d) Madri
Ans : A
48. In Indian Mythology , who was the wife of Kubera?
a) Rambha
b)Menaka
c) Urvasi
d) Lakshmi
Ans : A
49. Which country was expelled from U.N. in 1992?
a) Czechoslovakia
b) Yugoslovia
c) Iraq
d) Switzerland
Ans : B
Personal
50. Who compiled the Adi Granth?
a) Guru Nanak
b) Guru Har Rai
c) Guru Arjun Dev
d) Guru Teg Bahadur
Ans : C
SBI CURRENT AFFAIRS 2008 QUESTIONS ANSWERS
1. WHO IS THE PRESENT CHAIRMAN OF CII ?
ANS- K.V.KAMATH1
2. WHAT IS THE FULLFORM OF "BRIC" ?
ANS- BRAZIL,RUSSIA ,INDIA,CHINA
3. WHICH FILM HAS BAGGED THE BEST MOVIE AWARDS IN IIFA AWARDS WHICH WAS HELD IN
BANGKOK ?
ANS- CHAK DE INDIA (YASH CHOPRA)
4. WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 MEN'S TITLE ?
ANS- RAFAEL NADAL
5. WHO IS THE WINNER OF DLF IPL CRICKET TOUNAMENT 2008 ?
ANS- RAJASTHAN ROYALS
6. NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION CHAIRMAN?
ANS- JUSTICE RAJENDRA BABU
7. WHO IS THE INDIAN HOCKEY COACH ?
ANS- JOKIM KARVALO
8. WHICH FILM HAS BAGGED THE BEST FILM OF GOLDEN PALM AWARD IN CANNES FILM FESTIVAL
2008 ?
ANS- ENTRE LES MURS (THE CLASS)
9. WHO IS THE winner of IIFA Best Actor award 2008 ?
ANS- SHAHRUKH KHAN (CHAK DE INDIA)
10.WHO IS THE CHIEF OF INDIAN AIR FORCE ?
ANS- FALI HOMI MAJOR
11.WHO IS THE MISS UNIVERSE INDIA 2008 ?
ANS- SIMARAN KAUR MUNDI
12.WHO IS THE Miss INDIA WORLD 2008
ANS- PARVATHY OMNAKUTTAN
13.VENUE OF 15TH SAARC SUMMIT 2008?
ANS- COLOMBO (SRI LANKA)
14.WHO GOT DADA SAHEB PHALKE RATNA AWARD 2008?
ANS- B.R.CHOPRA
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15.WHO IS THE WINNER OF WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 ?
ANS- AUSTRALIA
16.WHO IS THE WORLD CUP CRICKET 2007 RUNNER UP ?
ANS- SRI LANKA
17.WHO IS THE WINNER OF FRENCH OPEN 2008 WOMENS TITLE ?
ANS- Ana Ivanovic
18.WHO COMPLETED 16000 RUNS IN ODI RECENTLY ?
ANS- SACHIN TENDULKAR
19.WHO IS THE PRESIDENT OF RUSSIA ?
ANS-DMITRI MEDWEDEV
20.WHO IS THE PRIME MINISTER OF RUSSIA ?
ANS- VLADIMIR PUTIN
21.WHO IS THE WORLD BANK PRESIDENT ?
ANS- ROBERT ZOELLICK
22.INDIA HAS SUCCESSFULLY TEST FIRED AGNI III IN THE MONTH OF MAY 2008. WHICH TYPE OF
MISSILE BELONGS TO AGNI III -
ANS - SURFACE TO SURFACE INTERMEDIATE RANGE BALLISTIC MISSILE
SBI : General Awareness Held on 13-07-2008
1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of -
(A) films
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Politics
(E) Status
ANS: (A)
2. Which of the following is not a food crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Maize
(D) Gram
(E) Cotton
ANS: (E)
Personal
3. Union Budget always presented first in -
(A) The Loksabha
(B) The Rajyasabha
(C) Joint session of Parliament
(D) Meeting of the Union cabinet
(E) The State Assemblies
ANS: (A)
4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget
to help which of the following sections of the society ?
(A) Children who are bonded labour
(B) Persons working in hazardous industries
(C) Farmers
(D) People living below poverty line
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of -
(A) France
(B) Argentina
(C) Spain
(D) New zealand
(E) Italy
ANS: (C)
6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in -
(A) Jakarta
(B) Bali
(C) New Delhi
(D) Tokyo
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(E) Islamabad
ANS: (B)
7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision
of not to go for reckless lending ?
(A) G-7
(B) G-8
(C) SAARC
(D) World Bank
(E) IMF
ANS: (E)
8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the -
(A) Prime Minister of Iraq
(B) President of Iran
(C) Prime Minister of Iran
(D) President of Iraq
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ?
(A) Islamabad
(B) Karanchi
(C) Dhaka
(D) Kathmandu
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in
Indian sub-continent ?
Personal
(A) Bhutan
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Sri Lanka
ANS: (A)
11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in
India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following
levels ? About -
(A) 6 %
(B) 6.5 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 7.5 %
(E) 9 %
ANS: (E)
12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the -
(A) Governor of Karnataka
(B) Chief Minister of Karnataka
(C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh
(D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and
compulsory education for all those who are of the age of -
(A) 3 Years
(B) 5 Years
(C) 6-14 Years
(D) 12-20 Years
Personal
(E) Upto 21 Years
ANS: (C)
14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) Ist May
(B) 10th May
(C) 21st May
(D) 31 st May
(E) 1st June
ANS: (D)
15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous -
(A) Social Work
(B) Politician
(C) Sportsman
(D) Play Wright
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full form of
GM ?
(A) Genetically Marketed
(B) Genetically Modified
(C) Green & Moisturious
(D) Globally Marketed
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following
countries ?
Personal
(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in
which former US Vice President Al Gore has featured as a narrator ?
(A) An inconvenient truth
(B) The Sea
(C) Road to prediction
(D) Remember My Name
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following
places to discuss security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ?
(A) Beijing
(B) New Delhi
(C) Singapore
(D) Kuala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ?
(A) Serena Williams
(B) Katarina Srebotnik
(C) Andy Murray
(D) Nichlas Almagro
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(E) Ricky Ponting
ANS: (E)
21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in -
(A) Kolkat
(B) New Delhi
(C) Pune
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) None of these
ANS: (E) Mumbai
22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock
exchange ?
(A) Nasdaq
(B) Nikkei
(C) Kospi
(D) Dow
(E) Combix
ANS: (E)
23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full
form of 'ECB'?
(A) Essential Commercial Borrowing
(B) Essential Credit & Borrowing
(C) External Credit & Business
(D) External Commercial Borrowing
(E) None Of These
ANS: (D)
24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was
Personal
reshuffled recently ?
(A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer
(B) Rahul Gandhi
(C) Priyanka
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ?
(A) Manik Sarkar
(B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay
(C) P.Longon
(D) K.Shankaranarayanan
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
SBI CLERK SOLVED PAPER (HELD ON 13-07-2008 SECOND SITTING)
MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
1. Bank MarketinG menas -
(A) Selling of Bnaks
(B) Buting of banks
(C) Merger of banks
(D) selling bank's produts and services
(E) Selling various items in banks
ANS -(D)
2. Proper pricing is needed for -
(A) Extra charges of extra services
(B) Levy of VAT
(C) Good customer services
(D) Putting burden on the customer
(E) Service with extra facilities
ANS -(C)
3. Alead means -
(A) Abank's marketing staff
(B) Areligious leader
(C) Bank's chairman
(D) Target Customer
(E) Leash tied to a dog
ANS -(D)
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4. A good salesman should be-
(A) Agressive
(B) Pushy
(C) Fierce
(D) Polite, but firm
(E) Talkative
ANS -(D)
5. Relationship selling means -
(A) Preparing a list of relatives
(B) Cross selling
(C) Selling to relatives
(D) Selling to strangers
(E) Telemarketing
ANS -(B)
6.ATM are -
(A) Branches of banks
(B) Manned couters of banks
(C) Unmanned , cash dispensers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
7. Home loans are granted to -
(A) Individuals
(B) Institutions
(C) Builders
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS -(A)
8. Credit cards are used for -
(A) Cash withdrawals
(B) Purchase of air tickets
(C) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS -(D)
9. HNI means -
(A) Highly negative individual
(B) High growth individual
(C) High neutral individual
(D) Highly necessary individual
(E) All of these
ANS -(B)
10. What menu is selected to cut , copy, and pest ?
(A) File
(B) Tools
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(C) Special
(D) Edit
(E) None of these
ANS -(D)
11. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network -
(A) Desktop
(B) Network client
(C) Network server
(D) Network station
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
12. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into -
(A) Web sites
(B) Information
(C) Programs
(D) Objects
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
13. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
(A) GB
(B) KB
(C) MB
(D) TB
(E) None of these
ANS -(D)
14. Which of the following is an example of connectivity ?
(A) Internet
(B) Floppy disk
(C) Power cord
(D) Data
(E) None of these
ANS -(A)
15. A collection of related file is called a -
(A) Character
(B) Field
(C) Database
(D) Record
(E) None of these
ANS -(C)
SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK
COMPUTER QUIZ
Objective 10 questions
1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?
Personal
Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different
monitor at school than at home
font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows
is different
2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?
Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E
3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
TXT WRD FIL DOC
4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?
Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter
5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?
No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your
Taskbar can display
6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:
Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and
attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation
7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?
Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only
way is by using the right scroll bar
8. How many margins are on a page?
Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top
and bottom)
9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:
Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text
format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML
10. A document in portrait prints:
The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line
than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in
landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape
Bank Po Entrance Sample Test papers (English)
Personal
Instructios (Questions 1-6 ): Pick out word with the Opposite meaning.
1. Though his view is correct his behavior was impertinent
(a) healthy
(b) respectful
(c) inadequate
(d) smooth
(e) impressive
Ans (b)
2. The commission took two years to sift through the massive collection of documents.
(a) meager
(b) heavy
(c) light
(d) short
(e) ugly
Ans (c)
3. The Minister’s speech precipitated the matter.
(a) aggravate
(b) create
(c) defer
(d) push
(e) pull
Ans (c)
4. The chairman rebuked the accounts officer.
(a) received
(b) awarded
(c) invited
(d) strengthened
(e) praised
Ans (b)
5. The manager is quite tactful and handles the workers union very effectively.
(a) disciplined
(b) naive
(c) strict
(d) loose
(e) relaxed
Ans (b)
Instructios (Questions 6-12 ): Pick out the word synonymous with the one in the sentence
given below.
6. After the dismal show the caption resigned his job.
(a) poor (b) sorrowful
(c) minimum
(d) short
(e) miser
Ans (a)
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7. The boy gave a graphic account of the theft.
(a) picture
(b) drawing
(c) vivid
(d) broad
(e) vague
Ans (c)
8. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and saved the members of his platoon.
(a) avoidable
(b) unusual
(c) strange
(d) abnormal
(e) new
Ans (b)
9. The police officer found that the documents recovered were fabricated.
(a) prepared
(b) forged
(c) genuine
(d) historical
(e) constricted
Ans (b)
10. In spite of their efforts, they could not make much headway.
(a) progress
(b) thinking
(c) efforts
(d) starts
(e) results
Ans (a)
Instructios (Questions 11-18 ):Fill up to blanks in the following Questions picking out from the
choices.
11. Mahesh _____ me coming to his table, he smiled and ___ me a chair
(a) looked, gave
(b) welcomed, took
(c) saw, offered
(d) found, signaled
(e) met, sat
Ans (c)
12. The counter Clerk was very busy and ____ not pay any ___ to Sohan’s request.
(a) did, attention
(b) had, cash
(c) could, respect
(d) can, help
(e) Certainly, acceptance
Ans (a)
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13. We are ___ to have him ____ here to make this function a great success
(a) happy, arrive
(b) wonderful, again
(c) sure, come
(d) pleased, over
(e) proud, leave
Ans (d)
14. Sachin ___ another feather ___ his cap by his performance in one day match.
(a) created, by (b) took, in (c) captured, from
(d) kept, in (e) added, to
Ans (e)
15. The state govt staff ___ threatened to launch an indefinite strike from next month to ___
their demands.
(a) have, press (b) did, get
(c) were, meet
(d) nearly, fulfill
(e) has, press
Ans (a)
16. The speech ___ with subtle threats has resulted in ___ tension.
(a) full, escalating
(b) started, reduced
(c) followed, continuous
(d) replete, increased
(e) forced, dissolving
Ans (d)
17. By long queues and bad weather the voters__ their way to the polling stations ___ a lot.
(a) undaunted, made
(b) making, suffered
(c) encouraged, prepared
(d) going, dropped
(e) satisfied, turned
Ans (b)
18. The CM ____ the house that ____ action would be taken against all those involved in
corruption.
(a) instructed, preventive
(b) called, stick
(c) assured, stringent
(d) reiterated, strictly
(e) informed, constructive
Ans (c)
Instructios (Questions 18-24 ) : In each of the following questions a part of sentence is given
with underline. Below each sentence, four choices numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) are given which
can substitute the part of the sentence printed with underline. Find out the choice which can
correctly substitute that part of the sentence. The number of that choice is the answer. If ‘No
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correction needed’ is your answer, the choice is (e).
18. He has received no other message than an urgent telegram asking him to rush village soon.
(a) asked him to rush his village
(b) asking him to have to his village
(c) asking him to rush to his village
(d) asking him rushing at his village
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)
19. We must take it granted that Madhu will not come for today’s function.
(a) take it for granted
(b) taking it granted
(c) took it as granted
(d) have it granted
(e) Non correction required
Ans (a)
20. I earnestly believes that you will visit our relatives during your trip to Bombay.
(a) had hardly believe that
(b) sincerely believe
(c) certainly believing that
(d) could not believe
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)
21. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by 7.30 pm so that we can reach the
station in time
(a) were
(b) must be
(c) are
(d) should have
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)
22. Maria unnecessarily picked up a quarrel with Ram and left the party.
(a) has picked up
(b) picked on
(c) picked
(d) picking up
(e) No correction required
Ans (e)
23. Anand has the guts to rise from the occasion and come out successfully.
(a) in rising from
(b) to raise with
(c) to rise against
(d) to rise to
(e) No correction required
Ans (d)
24. I need not offer any explanation, my behaviour is speaking itself.
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(a) will speak to itself
(b) speaks for itself
(c) has been speaking
(d) speaks about itself
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)
25.Pick out the most effective words from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence complete.
Although I was doubtful, my mother was …. that I would pass.
(a) firm
(b) uncertain
(c) decided
(d) sure
(e) believed
Ans (d)
1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the
question mark (?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)
2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the
question mark (?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)
3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong
term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)
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4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong
term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)
5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)
6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)
7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 × Position of the letter in alphabet) - 1
Vowels = (3 × Position in alphabet) + 1
BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65
Ans (d)
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8. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means
‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the
following means ‘enmity’ in that language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)
9. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’; ‘Kop ja ki ma’
means ‘Asha is playing tennis’; ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are playing football’; and ‘po sur
kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in that language means ‘Asha’?
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)
10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday
has again fall on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)
11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with
how many times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)
12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey
shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was
without either hockey pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)
13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in
number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls.
The total number of girls in the class is
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(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)
14. ‘A’ is east of ‘B’ and west of ‘C’. ‘H’ is South-West of ‘C’, ‘B’ is South-East of ‘X’. which
is farthest West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)
15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of
her entire year’s earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6
Ans (b)
16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on
Thursday. When did it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday (d) 5.00 pm on
Wednesday
Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I
and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of
the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still
continue to import sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
Ans (c)
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18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer
peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)
20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to
reach their places of work on time.
Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of
Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)
21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the
ongoing strike of its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)
22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
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23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)
24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)
25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
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120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)
27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
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Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)
30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
BANK PO (TEST OF VERBAL REASONING)
Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given
below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same
order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?
(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
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2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different.
Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
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Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the
digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of
the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which
immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are there?
5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The
letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the
4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging
numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a
vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is
substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
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(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the
alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the
remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th
letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X
Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of
letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in
English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one
does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
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14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its
letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has
between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to
SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park
17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the
first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women
are working in that office.
(a) 30
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(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the
scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I
have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned
right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the
starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed
by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
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(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
BANK PO GENERAL ENGLISH MODEL QUESTIONS
Direction (Questions 1 to 5): Pick out word with the Opposite meaning.
1. Though his view is correct his behavior was impertinent
(a) healthy
(b) respectful
(c) inadequate
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(d) smooth
(e) impressive
Ans (b)
2. The commission took two years to sift through the massive collection of documents.
(a) meager
(b) heavy
(c) light
(d) short
(e) ugly
Ans (c)
3. The Minister’s speech precipitated the matter.
(a) aggravate
(b) create
(c) defer
(d) push
(e) pull
Ans (c)
4. The chairman rebuked the accounts officer.
(a) received
(b) awarded
(c) invited
(d) strengthened
(e) praised
Ans (b)
5. The manager is quite tactful and handles the workers union very effectively.
(a) disciplined
(b) naive
(c) strict
(d) loose
(e) relaxed
Ans (b)
Direction (Questions 6 to 10): Pick out the word synonymous with the one in the sentence
given below.
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6. After the dismal show the caption resigned his job.
(a) poor
(b) sorrowful
(c) minimum
(d) short
(e) miser
Ans (a)
7. The boy gave a graphic account of the theft.
(a) picture
(b) drawing
(c) vivid
(d) broad
(e) vague
Ans (c)
8. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and saved the members of his platoon.
(a) avoidable
(b) unusual
(c) strange
(d) abnormal
(e) new
Ans (b)
9. The police officer found that the documents recovered were fabricated.
(a) prepared
(b) forged
(c) genuine
(d) historical
(e) constricted
Ans (b)
10. In spite of their efforts, they could not make much headway.
(a) progress
(b) thinking
(c) efforts
(d) starts
(e) results
Ans (a)
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Fill up to blanks in the following Questions from 11 to 18 picking out from the choices.
11. Mahesh _____ me coming to his table, he smiled and ___ me a chair
(a) looked, gave
(b) welcomed, took
(c) saw, offered
(d) found, signaled
(e) met, sat
Ans (c)
12. The counter Clerk was very busy and ____ not pay any ___ to Sohan’s request.
(a) did, attention
(b) had, cash
(c) could, respect
(d) can, help
(e) Certainly, acceptance
Ans (a)
13. We are ___ to have him ____ here to make this function a great success
(a) happy, arrive
(b) wonderful, again
(c) sure, come
(d) pleased, over
(e) proud, leave
Ans (d)
14. Satyam ___ another feather ___ his cap by his performance in one day match.
(a) created, by
(b) took, in
(c) captured, from
(d) kept, in
(e) added, to
Ans (e)
15. The state Govt. staff ___ threatened to launch an indefinite strike from next month to
___ their demands.
(a) have, press
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(b) did, get
(c) were, meet
(d) nearly, fulfill
(e) has, press
Ans (a)
16. The speech ___ with subtle threats has resulted in ___ tension.
(a) full, escalating
(b) started, reduced
(c) followed, continuous
(d) replete, increased
(e) forced, dissolving
Ans (d)
17. By long queues and bad weather the voters__ their way to the polling stations ___ a
lot.
(a) undaunted, made
(b) making, suffered
(c) encouraged, prepared
(d) going, dropped
(e) satisfied, turned
Ans (b)
18. The CM ____ the house that ____ action would be taken against all those involved in
corruption.
(a) instructed, preventive
(b) called, stick
(c) assured, stringent
(d) reiterated, strictly
(e) informed, constructive
Ans (c)
Direction (Questions 19 to 25):In each of the following questions , a part of sentence is given
with underline. Below each sentence, four choices numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) are given which
can substitute the part of the sentence printed with underline. Find out the choice which can
correctly substitute that part of the sentence. The number of that choice is the answer. If ‘No
correction needed’ is your answer, the choice is (e).
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19. He has received no other message than an urgent telegram asking him to rush village
soon.
(a) asked him to rush his village
(b) asking him to have to his village
(c) asking him to rush to his village
(d) asking him rushing at his village
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)
20. We must take it granted that Anju will not come for today’s function.
(a) take it for granted
(b) taking it granted
(c) took it as granted
(d) have it granted
(e) Non correction required
Ans (a)
21. I earnestly believes that you will visit our relatives during your trip to Mumbai.
(a) had hardly believe that
(b) sincerely believe
(c) certainly believing that
(d) could not believe
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)
22. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by 7.30 pm so that we can reach
the station in time
(a) were
(b) must be
(c) are
(d) should have
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)
23. Binita unnecessarily picked up a quarrel with Sanjay and left the party.
(a) has picked up
(b) picked on
(c) picked
(d) picking up
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(e) No correction required
Ans (e)
24. Raja has the guts to rise from the occasion and come out successfully.
(a) in rising from
(b) to raise with
(c) to rise against
(d) to rise to
(e) No correction required
Ans (d)
25. I need not offer any explanation, my behaviour is speaking itself.
(a) will speak to itself
(b) speaks for itself
(c) has been speaking
(d) speaks about itself
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)
Direction (Question 1 to 5): Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no
error, mark ‘e’.
1. Prashant could reached by now if he had gone by taxi.
(a) could reach
(b) reached
(c) should reach
(d) could have reached
(e) No correction required.
Ans (d)
2. Last year the Club has received a large donation.
(a) had received
(b) has to receive
(c) has to receive
(d) receives
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)
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3. Sangita has managed to complete the work I gave her.
(a) would have managed
(b) has management
(c) had to manage
(d) has to manage
(e) No correction required.
Ans (e)
4. Venkat tries to make me change my mind but I was firm.
(a) tried
(b) trying
(c) would try
(d) had been tried
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)
5. Naveen has left when I reached his home.
(a) has to leave
(b) had left
(c) had leave
(d) leaves
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)
Direction (Question 6 to 15):Pick out the most effective words from the given words to fill in
the blank to make the sentence complete.
6. Although I was doubtful, my mother was …. that I would pass.
(a) firm
(b) uncertain
(c) decided
(d) sure
(e) believed
Ans (d)
7. Satosh is …. strong to be beaten by the other wrestlers.
(a) as
(b) much
(c) so
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(d) more
(e) too
Ans (e)
8. They ….. no attention to what people say about them.
(a) keep
(b) listen
(c) pay
(d) take
(e) mind
Ans (c)
9. Mukesh is not happy with his present job …. the salary is very low.
(a) although
(b) even if
(c) in spite of
(d) their
(e) as
Ans (e)
10. Neelam is intending to accompany them on …. next trip abroad
(a) her
(b) their’s
(c) our
(d) their
(e) its
Ans (d)
11. Rashmi has been suffering ….. fever for the last three days.
(a) in
(b) from
(c) for
(d) with
(e) against
Ans (b)
12. Simmi got scared when the beggar stared …. her.
(a) over
(b) on
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(c) about
(d) at
(e) to
13. When I saw him in torn clothes, I was ….. by surprise.
(a) taken
(b) took
(c) takes
(d) taking
(e) take
Ans (a)
14. The Cat was …. by a speeding truck.
(a) run over
(b) crossed over
(c) killed over
(d) went over
(e) moved over
Ans (a)
SBI CLERK MODEL QUESTION NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST
1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:
a. 199999
b. 201110
c. 211110
d. 1099999
e. None of these
2. Value of 112 * 54. is :
a. 6700
b. 70000
c. 76500
d. 77200
e. None of these
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3. 1399*1399
a. 1687401
b. 1901541
c. 1943211
d. 1957201
e. None of these
4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is
a. 41625
b. 42135
c. 42515
d. 42735
e. None of these
5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.
a. 0
b. –n
c. 2n
d. n2
e. None of these
6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :
a. 0
b. -3
c. -4
d. -5
e. None of these
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7. The least prime no. is :
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. None of these
8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:
a. 199
b. 201
c. 211
d. 272
e. None of these
9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. None
e. None of these
10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.
a. 40
b. 100
c. 110
d. 120
e. None of these
11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:
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a. 0
b. 2
c. 6
d. 8
e. None of these
12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :
a. 1035
b. 1280
c. 2070
d. 2140
e. None of these
13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. None of these
14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11
a. 235641
b. 245642
c. 315624
d. 415624
e. None of these
15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural
no’s is:
a. 6
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b. 12
c. 24
d. 120
e. None of these
16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:
a. 3
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
e. None of these
17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :
a. 10
b. 20
c. 35
d. 80
e. None of these
18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. None of these
19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:
a. 98928
b. 99479
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c. 99615
d. 100166
e. None of these
20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is
a. 6
b. 12
c. 14
d. 18
e. None of these
21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:
a. 99909
b. 99981
c. 99990
d. 99999
e. None of these
22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the
remainder will be
a. 1
b. 2
c. 7
d. 21
e. None of these
23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and
the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :
a. 240
b. 270
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c. 295
d. 360
e. None of these
24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then
dividend is :
a. 4236
b. 4306
c. 4336
d. 5336
e. None of these
25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest
such no. is :
a. 9947
b. 9987
c. 9989
d. 9996
e. None of these
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :
1) a
2) 1120000/16 = b
3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d
4) 555555/13 = d
5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c
14)d 15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c
22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b
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PAPER : SBI CLERK MODEL PAPER ONLINE
NUMERICAL ABILITY
1. Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal toa. 11b. 14c. 20d. 21
Answer-d
3. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x isa. -1b. 0c. 1d. 2
Answer -b
4. 0.333 .... × 0.444 .... is equal to a. 0.148148148 ....b. 0.777 ....c. 0.121212 ....d. 1.333 ....
Answer-a
9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we geta. 96b. 104c. 108d.
109
Answer-d
10. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27 a. 54b. 64c. 81d. 91
Answer-d
11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds.
The length of the train is -a. 125mb. 135 mc. 159 md. 175 m
Answer-c
12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps
are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time
will it take to fill the tank by tap B?a. 7 min & 15 secb. 7 min & 45 secc. 8 min & 5 secd. 8 min
& 15 sec
Answer-d
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13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what
ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half
water?a. 7:5b. 1:2c. 2:1d. 6:5
Answer-a
14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have
been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is
the original speed of the car?a. 45 km/hrb. 50 km/hrc. 55 km/hrd. 65 km/hr
Answer-c
15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does
the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in
Answer-a
16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km
per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him wasa. 450 kmb.
675 kmc. 337.5 kmd. 1350 km
Answer-b
17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4
times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C isa. Rs. 84b. Rs. 147c. Rs.
196d. Rs. 240
Answer-a
18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3
months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit
of Rs. 9500 isa. Rs. 3500b. Rs. 3000c. Rs. 2500d. Rs. 4000
Answer-c
19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work
together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to
complete the work is
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Answer-b
20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the
year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is a. Rs. 1700b. Rs. 1800c. Rs. 2000d. Rs. 2200
Answer-c
21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and
then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the
work in a. 48 daysb. 60 daysc. 75 daysd. 90 days
Answer-d
22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular
cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder isa. 1848 cm3b.
1232 cm3c. 1078 cm3d. 980 cm3
Answer-c
23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in
the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle isa. 30 cmb. 60 cmc. 72 cmd. 108 cm
Answer-b
24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds.
The area of the field is-a. 125 sq. cmb. 112.5 sq. cmc. 110 sq. cmd. 100√2 sq. m
Answer-b
25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are
together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -a. 10 cmb. 24 cmc. 26
cmd. 27.5 cmAnswer-b26.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same asa. 4 : 1b. 2 :1c. 7 : 5d. 7 :10
Answer-a
27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that
of the cube isa. √π : √6b. √π : √6c. √π : √3d. √6 : √π
Answer-d
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28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and
10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the
cash price of the table?a. Rs. 2400b. Rs. 2160c. Rs. 2100d. Rs. 2052
Answer-d
29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain
percent in the deal is-
Answer-b
30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of
interest per annum is -a. 10%b. 12%c. 15%d. 16⅔ %
Answer-c
31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the
agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs.
126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, isa. 2b. 3c. 4d. 5
Answer-b
32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?a. Rs.
1,20,000b. Rs. 1,92,000c. Rs. 1,24,000d. Rs. 96,000
Answer-b
33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent isa. 10%b. 15%c.
12½%d. 25%
Answer-d
34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had
sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell the other radio?
Answer-a
35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges
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@ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total
number of oranges bought by him was -a. 30 dozenb. 40 dozenc. 50 dozend. 60 dozen
Answer-d
36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs.
355. The C.P. of the commodity isa. Rs. 370b. Rs. 385c. Rs. 390d. Rs. 400
Answer-c
37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased
by 5% then the amount will increase toa. Rs. 950b. Rs. 980c. Rs. 1010d. Rs. 1040
Answer-d
38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of
the three numbers is 44, the largest number isa. 24b. 36c. 17d. 72
Answer-d
39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of
paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number
of tins required for painting the house is -a. 15b. 12c. 10d. 20
Answer-a
40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio
of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his
salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming
that his present salary is Rs. 3500?a. Rs. 300b. Rs. 350c. Rs. 375d. Rs. 475
Answer-d
State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved
Paper
Quantitative Aptitude
Personal
Directions—(Q. 81–90) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
81. (8.2% of 365) – (1.75% of 108) = ?
(A) 16.02 (B) 28.04
(C) 42.34 (D) 53.76
(E) None of these
82. [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ ? = 45 ´ 24
(A) 18 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 44
(E) None of these
83. (96)2 + (63)2 = (?)2 – (111)2 – 8350
(A) 33856 (B) 30276
(C) 174 (D) 184
(E) None of these
84. 4368 + 2158 – 596 – ? = 3421 + 1262
(A) 1066 (B) 1174
(C) 1247 (D) 1387
(E) None of these
85. 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12
(E) None of these
86. 666.06 + 66.60 + 0.66 + 6.06 + 6 + 60 = ?
(A) 819.56 (B) 805.38
(C) 826.44 (D) 798.62
(E) None of these
87. 15.594 – 4.312 – 3.517 – 1.689 = ?
(A) 6.706 (B) 6.760
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(C) 6.670 (D) 6.607
(E) None of these
88. 205 ´ ? ´ 13 = 33625 + 25005
(A) 22 (B) 27
(C) 33 (D) 39
(E) None of these
89. 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0.85 + 14.5 – 3 = ?
(A) 36.45 (B) 23.85
(C) 42.95 (D) 18.65
(E) None of these
90. (10)24 ´ (10)– 21 = ?
(A) 3 (B) 10
(C) 100 (D) 1000
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 91–95) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number
series ?
91. 12 6.5 7.5 12.75 27.5 71.25 ?
(A) 225.75 (B) 216.75
(C) 209.75 (D) 236.75
(E) 249.75
92. 16 24 36 54 81 121.5 ?
(A) 182.25 (B) 174.85
(C) 190.65 (D) 166.55
(E) 158.95
93. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?
(A) 13485 (B) 14675
(C) 15890 (D) 16756
(E) 12285
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94. 22 23 27 36 52 77 ?
(A) 111 (B) 109
(C) 113 (D) 117
(E) 115
95. 16 14 24 66 256 1270 ?
(A) 8564 (B) 5672
(C) 4561 (D) 7608
(E) 6340
Directions—(Q. 96–100) Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow
—
Number of Boys and Girls in Five Streams of a College Over the Years
STREAMS
YEAR Arts Science Commerce Management IT
Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls
2002 556 414 619 505 668 612 770 633 670 515
2003 763 608 793 612 781 616 667 439 866 722
2004 672 519 540 516 859 713 778 727 781 619
2005 809 602 928 908 870 811 849 729 977 817
2006 745 510 884 820 967 819 562 938 990 808
2007 698 413 765 616 571 515 1288 1016 1151 1010
96. What is the total number of Boys, for all the Streams together, in the year 2004 ?
(A) 4148 (B) 3630
(C) 4433 (D) 3247
(E) None of these
97. The number of Boys in Arts Stream in the year 2004 is approximately what per cent of the
total number of Boys for all the years together in Arts Stream ?
(A) 27 (B) 34
(C) 08 (D) 39
(E) 16
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98. What is the ratio of the total number of Boys to the total number of Girls, from all the
Stream together, for the year 2007 ?
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 14 : 13
(C) 52 : 49 (D) 213 : 170
(E) None of these
99. What is the ratio of the total number of Boys to the total number of Girls in the Management
Stream for all the years together ?
(A) 9 : 8 (B) 71 : 86
(C) 91 : 83 (D) 27 : 23
(E) None of these
100. What is the average number of Girls from Commerce Stream for the given years ?
(A) 681 (B) 675
(C) 618 (D) 657
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 101–105) What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in
the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
101. (935.82)2 = ?
(A) 870000 (B) 867500
(C) 888800 (D) 875800
(E) 899800
102. 628.306 + 6.1325 ´ 44.0268 = ?
(A) 820 (B) 970
(C) 1050 (D) 1175
(E) 900
103. (739% of 383) ÷ 628 = ?
(A) 10.00 (B) 4.50
(C) 15.75 (D) 19.25
(E) 24.15
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104. (9795 + 7621 + 938) ÷ (541 + 831 + 496) = ?
(A) 9 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 23
(E) 29
105. 814296 ´ 36 = ? ´ 96324
(A) 326 (B) 272
(C) 304 (D) 358
(E) 260
Directions—(Q. 106–110) Study the infor-mation carefully to answer the following questions—
In an organization consisting of 750 emp-loyees, the ratio of Males to Females is 8 : 7
respectively. All the employees work in five different departments viz. HR, Management, PR, IT
and Recruitment. 16 per cent of the Females work in Management Department. 32 per cent of
Males are in HR Department. One–fifth of the Females are in the Department of Recruitment.
The ratio of Males to Females in the Management Department is 3 : 2 respectively. 20 per cent
of the total number of employees are in PR Department. Females working in Recruitment are
50 per cent of the Males working in the same Department. 8 per cent of the Males are in IT
Department. The remaining Males are in PR Department. 22 per cent of the Females work in HR
Department and the remaining Females are working in IT Department.
106. What is the total number of Females working in the IT and Recruitment Department
together ?
(A) 147 (B) 83
(C) 126 (D) 45
(E) None of these
107. What is the number of Females working in the HR Department ?
(A) 77 (B) 70
(C) 56 (D) 134
(E) None of these
108. Number of Males working in HR Depart-ment from approximately what per cent of total
number of the employees in the Organization ?
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(A) 20 (B) 28
(C) 32 (D) 9
(E) 17
109. Number of Males working in PD Department forms what per cent of the number of Females
working in the same Department ? (rounded off two digits after decimal)
(A) 22.98 (B) 16.68
(C) 11.94 (D) 6.79
(E) 27.86
110. What is the total number of employees working in the Management Department ?
(A) 128 (B) 77
(C) 210 (D) 140
(E) None of these
111. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 19,800. At the end of three years is Rs.
7,128. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in
the same period ?
(A) Rs. 8934.6784
(B) Rs. 8017.5744
(C) Rs. 7861.8754
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
112. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 400% and the denominator is increased by
500%, the resultant fraction is 1021 . What was the original fraction ?
(A) 512 (B) 813
(C) 1714 (D) 47
(E) None of these
113. What is 26% of 55% of 1013 th of 6100 ?
(A) 617 (B) 681
(C) 706 (D) 734
(E) None of these
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114. The ages of Aarzoo and Arnav are in the ratio of 11 : 13 respectively. After 7 years the
ratio of their ages will be 20 : 23. What is the difference in years between their ages ?
(A) 4 years (B) 7 years
(C) 6 years (D) 5 years
(E) None of these
115. One-eighth of a number is 17.25. What will 73% of that number be ?
(A) 100.74 (B) 138.00
(C) 96.42 (D) 82.66
(E) None of these
Direction—(Q. 116–120) Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow—
Number of Girls Enrolled in Different Hobby Classes in Various Institutes in a Year
116. What is the respective ratio of total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting in the Institutes A
and C together to those Enrolled in Stitching in the Institutes D and E together ?
(A) 5 : 4 (B) 5 : 7
(C) 16 : 23 (D) 9 : 8
(E) None of these
117. Number of Girls Enrolled in Stitching in Institute B forms approximately what per cent of
the total number of Girls Enrolled in Stitching in all the Institutes together ?
(A) 29 (B) 21
(C) 33 (D) 37
(E) 45
118. What is the respecive ratio of total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting, Stitching and
Dancing from all the Institutes together ?
(A) 44 : 48 : 47 (B) 43 : 47 : 48
(C) 44 : 47 : 48 (D) 47 : 48 : 44
(E) None of these
119. Number of Girls Enrolled in Dancing in Institute A forms what per cent of total number of
Girls Enrolled in all the Hobby Classes together in that Institute ? (rounded off to two digits
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after decimal)
(A) 23.87 (B) 17.76
(C) 31.23 (D) 33.97
(E) 20.69
120. What is the total number of Girls Enrolled in Painting from all the Institutes together ?
(A) 1150 (B) 1200
(C) 1275 (D) 1100
(E) None of these
Answers with Explanation :
81. (B) ? = (8·2% of 365) – (1·75% of 108)
= 365 ´ – 108 ´
= 29·93 – 1·89 = 28.04 Ans.
82. (C) ? = [(135)2 ÷ 15 ´ 32] ÷ (24 ´ 45)
= ÷ (1080)
= = 36 Ans.
83. (D) ?2 = (96)2 + (63)2 + (111)2 + 8350
= 9216 + 3969 + 12321 + 8350
= 33856 = (184)2
? = 184 Ans.
84. (C) ? = 4368 + 2158 – 596 – 3421 – 1262
= 6526 – 5279 = 1247 Ans.
85. (A) 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 – 956 – 514
\ ? = =
= 6 Ans.
86. (B) ? = 666·06 + 66·60 + 0·66 + 6·06
+ 6 + 60
= 805·56 Ans.
87. (E) ? = 15·594 – 4·312 – 3·517 – 1·689
= 15·594 – 9·518 = 6·076 Ans.
88. (A) ? = =
= 22 Ans.
89. (E) ? = 69 ÷ 3 ´ 0·85 + 14·5 – 3
= 23 ´ 0·85 + 14·5 – 3
= 19·55 + 14·50 – 3 = 34·05 – 3
= 31·05 Ans.
Personal
90. (D) ? = (10)24 ´ (10)– 21
= (10)24 – 21 = (10)3
= 1000 Ans.
91. (B)
92. (A)
93. (E)
94. (C)
95. (D)
96. (B) Total no. of boys for all streams in 2004
= 672 + 540 + 859 + 778 + 781
= 3630 Ans.
97. (E) Reqd. Percentage
= %
= % = 15·84%
16% (Approximate) Ans.
98. (D) Reqd. Ratio = (698 + 765 + 571 + 1288 + 1151) : (413 + 616 + 515 + 1016 + 1010)
= (4473) : (3570)
=
= 213 : 170 Ans.
99. (C) Reqd. Ratio = (770 + 667 + 778 + 849 + 562 + 1288) : (633 + 439 + 727 + 729 + 938
+ 1016)
= (4914) : (4482)
= (91 ´ 54) : (83 ´ 54)
= 91 : 83 Ans.
100. (A) Average number of girls from Commerce Stream for the given years
=
= = 681 Ans.
101. (d) ? = (935·82)2 = 875759·0724
875800 (Approximate) Ans.
102. (E) ? = 628·306 + 6·1325 ´ 44·0268
628 + 6 ´ 44 628 + 264
900 (Approximate) Ans.
103. (B) ? = (739% of 383) ÷ 628
= 2830·37 ÷ 628 4·50 (Approximate)
Ans.
104. (A) ? = (9795 + 7621 + 938)
÷ (541 + 831 + 496)
= (18354) ÷ (1868) = 9·825
9 (Approximate) Ans.
Personal
105. (C) ? = = 304·33
304 (Approximate) Ans.
For questions 106 to 110
The data in the following table are based on the given information for these questions—
Department Male Female Total
H.R. 400 = 128
350 ´
= 77
205
Manage-ment
56 ´
= 84
350 ´
= 56
140
P.R.
400 –
(128 + 84 + 32 + 140) = 400 – 384
= 16
150 – 16
= 134
750 ´ = 150
I.T.
400 ´
= 32
350 – (77 + 56 + 134 + 70) = 350 – 337 = 13
45
Recruitment
2 ´ 70
= 140
350 ´
= 70
210
Total
400
350
750
106. (B) Total No. of Females in I.T. and Recruit-ment Deptt. = 13 + 70 = 83 Ans.
107. (A) Number of females in H.R. Department
Personal
= 22% of 350 = ´ 350 = 77 Ans.
108. (E) Required Percentage = ´ 100%
= 17·06%
= 17% (Approximate) Ans.
109. (C) Reqd. Percentage = ´ 100%
= 11·94 Ans.
110. (D) Total number of employees in the Mana-gement = 84 + 56
= 140 Ans.
111. (B) Let the annual rate of interest = R%, Then as per question—
˙.˙ 7128 =
Þ R = = 12%
Reqd. Compound Interest
= 19800
= 19800
= 19800
=
= Rs. 8017·5744 Ans.
112. (d) Let the original fraction be . Then
=
Þ =
= = Ans.
113. (e) Given Exp. = 26% of 55% of th
of 6100
= ´ ´ ´ 6100
= 2 ´ ´ 10 ´ 61
= 11 ´ 61 = 671 Ans.
114. (c) Let the ages of Aarzoo and Arnav are 11x and 13x years
Then, as per question—
˙.˙ =
Þ 260x + 140 = 253x + 161
Þ (260 – 253)x = 161 – 140
Þ 7x = 21
x = 3
Reqd. difference in years between their ages
= 13x – 11x
= 2 ´ 3 = 6 years Ans.
115. (a) Let the required number be x.
˙.˙ ´ x = 17·25
Þ x = 17·25 ´ 8 = 138
Personal
73% of the number = ´ 138
= 100·74 Ans.
116. (c) Reqd. Ratio
=
=
= = 16 : 23 Ans.
117. (b) Reqd. Percentage
= %
= % = 20·83% 21% (app.) Ans.
118. (a) Reqd. Ratio
= (Girls Enrolled in Painting) :
(Stitching) : (Pancing)
= (250 + 225 + 150 + 175 + 300) : (325 + 250 + 50 + 250 + 325) : (150 + 200 + 75 + 400 +
350)
= (1100) : (1200) : (1175)
= 44 : 48 : 47 Ans.
119. (e) Reqd. Percentage = %
= % = 20·689%
20·69% Ans.
120. (d) Total number of girls enrolled in Painting from all the institutes
= 250 + 225 + 150 + 175 + 300
= 1100 Ans.
SBI Clerk General Awareness Solved Paper
1. India has successfully test-fired its 150-250 km range Prithvi missile On May 23, 2008. Prithvi
Missile is a —
(A) Surface to surface missile
(B) Surface to air missile
(C) Land to sea missile
(D) Air to air missile
2. Which of the following High Courts has recently quashed the merit list issued in 2006 and
2007 by the centre and the UPSC—
(A) Bhopal High Court
(B) Rajasthan High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Guwahati High Court
Personal
3. Recently in May 2008 a assembly election was held in the India State of—
(A) Manipur
(B) Karnataka
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) None of the above
4. People’s Democratic Party emerged second largest party with 33·01% in elections held in—
(A) Bhutan
(B) Nepal
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Italy
5. According to the World Conservation Union Report, the number of plant species in India
listed as threatened is—
(A) 247 plant species
(B) 250 plant species
(C) 275 plant species
(D) 255 plant species
6. Which of the following states passed a Bill in March 2008, amending the Registration Act
1908 to prohibit foreigners from buying land in the state—
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
7. The renowned science fiction writer Arthur C. Clarke who died in Sri Lanka, originally hailed
from—
(A) Australia
(B) Britain
(C) Finland
(D) U.S.A.
8. Who received Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmanent and Development for 2007—
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
(D) Arthur C. Clarke
Personal
9. World Press Freedom Day is observed on—
(A) May 3
(B) May 15
(C) May 25
(D) May 27
10. Which of the following Indian Political Leader has written the book "Jyoti Punj"?
(A) L.K.Adwani
(B) Sonia Gandhi
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Narendra Modi
11. India has successfully launched how many satellires simultaneously ?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 4
12. Jules Verne is Europe’s—
(A) Space shuttle
(B) Missile shield system
(C) Biggest spacecraft
(D) Mission to Antarctica
13. India’s National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first—
(A) Dirrohoea map
(B) Malarial map
(C) Bird flu map
(D) Cancer map
14. ‘The World Is What It Is’ is the biography of—
(A) V. S. Naipal
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Amrita Preetam
(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
15. According to a World Bank Report India got remittances in 2007 worth—
(A) $ 30 billion
(B) $ 35 billion
Personal
(C) $ 25 billion
(D) $ 27 billion
16. The Summit of OIC (Organization of Islamic Countries) was held in March in—
(A) Senegal
(B) Morocco
(C) Pakistan
(D) Indonesia
17. According to latest WHO report the number of estimated TB cases found every year in India
is—
(A) 2·2 million
(B) 1·9 million
(C) 1·5 million
(D) 1·7 million
18. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from—
(A) Hyundai
(B) Maruti Suzuki
(C) Ford Motor
(D) None of the above
19. According to a survey, the country which has the highest number of internet users is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) Germany
20. India won its first tri series against Australia in—
(A) Brisbane
(B) Melbourne
(C) Sydney
(D) Perth
21. According to Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (EAC) headed by C. Rangrajan the
economic growth rate for 2008-09 will remain at—
(A) 8%
(B) 8·5%
(C) 9%
(D) 8·9%
Personal
22. The Pritzkar Architecture Prize has been won by—
(A) Bill Gates Foundation
(B) William Harvey
(C) Jea Nouvel
(D) None of the above
23. Which of the following cricket players has been banned for violating the player’s code of
conduct by PCB ?
(A) Danish Kaneria
(B) Shoaib Malik
(C) Mohammad Yousuf
(D) Shoaib Akhtar
24. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has now been extended to all 604
districts of the country with a total budget outlay of—
(A) 18000 crore
(B) 16000 crore
(C) 15000 crore
(D) 14000 crore
25. Inflation which soared above 7% in the month of April is measured by—
(A) Consumer Price Index
(B) Retail Price Index
(C) Whole Sale Price Index
(D) Industrial Price Index
26. The winner of Bahrain Grand Prix is—
(A) Lewis Hamilton
(B) Kartikeyan
(C) Felipe Massa
(D) Robert Kubica
27. The winner of Miss India Earth 2008 is—
(A) Tanvi Vyas
(B) Suman Kaur
(C) Rashmi Sehgal
(D) Rani Sharma
28. In face of rising prices, Central Government has decided to set strategic Reserve of
foodgrains over and above buffer stock. The limit of the reserve is—
Personal
(A) 10 million tonnes
(B) 7 million tonnes
(C) 6 million tonnes
(D) 5 million tonnes
29. Which of following newspapers/magazines won six Pulitzer prizes—
(A) The New York Times
(B) The Times Magazine
(C) The Washington Post
(D) The Guardian
30. ‘Leftism in India, 1917-1947’ is a book written by—
(A) S. R. Chaudhuri
(B) K. Kanwar
(C) R. Nagaswamy
(D) Sudipto Chatterjee
31. Recently President Pratibha Patil visited three countries. Which of the following was not
the part of her trip—
(A) Argentina
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) Brazil
32. GJM stands for—
(A) General Justice Movement
(B) Gorkha Janmukti Morcha
(C) Gorkhaland Janshakti Morcha
(D) Gorkha Janjagriti Morcha
33. The elections of which of the following countries were marred by controversy—
(A) Italy
(B) Spain
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Nepal
34. Supreme Court has upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing 27% for candidates belonging
to—
(A) SCs
(B) STs
Personal
(C) OBC
(D) Minorities OBC
35. At which of the following places have the remains of early human history been found in
excavation—
(A) Chittorgarh
(B) Bhavnagar
(C) Kolkata
(D) Karaikal
36. ‘Salwa Judum’ is—
(A) Terrorist organization
(B) A branch of naxalite
(C) Name of a police force
(D) An anti naxalite movement
37. When was Nepal declared a Secular Nation—
(A) in 2005
(B) in 2007
(C) in 2008
(D) in 2006
38. The Director General of UN Food and Agriculture Organisation of present is—
(A) Jacques Diouf
(B) Kundekeh K. Yumkella
(C) Jammel Al Hiyilan
(D) Michael Griffin
39. According to a research, stem cells from skin can treat—
(A) Alzhumer
(B) Schizophrenia
(C) Parkinson’s disease
(D) None of the above
40. Which of the following States Hs declared 2008 as the "year of Education" ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Haryana
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Personal
Answers with Hints
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) . 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (B) India’s Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first
malarial map identifying India’s 60 most malarial endemic districts that report over 50% of
the country’s malaria’s cases.
14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (B)
22. (C) The Pritzkar Architecture Prize, considered to be equivalent of Nobel Prize for
architecture has been won french architect Jea Nouvel for his creative experimentation in
architecture.
23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (C) The Washington Post has won six Pulitzer Prizes, including Public service award for
its reporting on conditions of U.S. War Veterans.
30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C)
34. (C) The Supreme Court on April 10, 2008 upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing a
quota of 27 per cent to the other Backward Classes in Central Educational Institutions.
35. (C)
36. (D) Salva Judam is an antinaxalite movement formed by group of people against attack
from maxalites. The movement started from Dantewada district (Chhattisgarh).
37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)
Personal

IBPS writteh exam is contain


Written Examination Structure:-

1 Reasoning
Composite
Time of
150 minutes
2 English Language
3 Quantitative Aptitude
4 General Awareness
(with special reference to Banking Industry)

5 Computer Knowledge
Descriptive Paper on English Composition
(Essay, Précis, Letter Writing etc)

IBPS SYLLABUS 2011

IBPS syllabus , for bank jobs common written exam,has issued in notification but not given the sub-topics in all sections.The first time we are providing the data of detailed IBPS syllabus 2011.In descriptive sections essays will be on general topics,which are issues of Indian market and global topics on present or past 1 year,computer knowledge section has 50 marks,which decided the quick/fast computer skills of student,mainly no need to worry of engineering/b.sc/b.com computer students on this topic and also its very easy section for internet users(Who knows about internet and surfing).But the English language section will eliminate the more students,because of ibps exam conducting India wide,so the difficulty level questions will be ask from this sections,you need to know the vocabulary,sentence correction well,expert saying that most of the students going to reject in English language section

.Apart from this the other 2 sections quantitative aptitude and reasoning will be ask logically,student must have the capability to think and guess quick and logical approach.Quantitative aptitude section easier than reasoning,because of in reasoning to solve the problem its depends on your thinking knowledge in different directions,so tough to maintain the time.And other section general awareness for 50 marks will also tough section,the students,who will read regularly news papers can answer the questions easily,need to know whats happened in 1 year globally as well as in India,and also sports,in this year,so many good results for India,winning the world cup,jankovic placed in number 1 position in tennis,new champions in Wimbledon,about Hussein bolt world records.IBPS exam has 2 sections

1.objective type

2. descriptive type

OBJECTIVE TYPE:

In objective type test totally 250 questions will come for 225 marks from 5 sub topics(see below).you need to answer 250 questions in 150 minutes(about 2 1/2 hours).Penalty for wrong answers at the rate of 1/4(0.25) negative marks.if your answer correct 1mark awarded to you.so be careful while writing the exam,this is conducting across india so there will be huge(unbelievable) competition.some students will get confuse and frequently ask that” which section can i start first?”,no body will decide and suggestion,its depends on you,if you feel good at aptitude then start this section first, some students good at general awareness, they have to start this section first.at last time will play major role for this exam



quantitative aptitude(50 questions) : 50marks

reasoning(50 questions) : 50 marks

general awareness(50 questions) : 50 marks

computer knowledge(50 questions) : 50 marks

English language (50 questions) : 25 marks

note: for above 5 sections the time duration will be 150 minutes

i want ibps exam papers

i want last five years papers so pls send me on [email protected]

may i have what are the topics in descriptive and timings

hi this is anand ibps bank po and clerical books and previous paper

paper n hindi lang

sir paper hindi me nahi aata hai kya

Plz provide the syllabus of IBPS clerical exam 2011

please attach anybody ibps exam syllabus

Sir i want Some resoning Notes of and Actual Time Of exam

sir i want to khow abut gen khowledge question and english

wer i the ibps book to purshase

Please give the message to my mail id when the banking exam will come.this time ihad missed to put the exams of banking

[email protected]

Plz provide the syllabus of IBPS clerical exam 2011

I WANT BOOKS NAME FOR BANK PO EXAM

hell sir ...........
quantitative aptitude 50questions 50marks
reasoning 50questions 50marks
general knowledge 50questions 50marks
computer knowledge 50questions 50marks
english language 50questions 25marks
the time duration will be 150min
descriptive on english ( eassys , letter writing ) 25 marks time : 60min
totalee time for ibps exam : 210min

hi ..

please send me previous papers of ibps PO exam.. and study material for this one... please help me this is fst attempt...

thanking u

my id : [email protected]

I want the question related to the computer knowledge general awareness

is it is worth to prepare for barc exam for 2 months or i should go for job oriented training?

I want to know the HR portion for IBPS EXAMS
Also books

please send me previous papers of ibps PO exam.. and study material for this one... please help me this is fst attempt...

thanking u

my id [email protected]

sir,

please send me previous papers of ibps PO exam.. and study material for this one... please help me this is fst attempt...

thanking u
my id is [email protected]

Hi dear.............
IBPS bank po exam details are as follows....



To prepare for the exam the best books are as follows.....







Good luck.......

i want cwe po exam previous question papers.

respected sir,

I am appearing for Bank po exam . and this is my first time .so please help me by send previous years solved exam paper. and suggest me which book should i prefer.

Thanks and regards.
Ashwini p shinde.

WHAT IS THE MINIMUM PERCENTAGE IN CLASS 10, CLASS12, AND GRADUATION.
MY EMAIL ID [email protected]

what are the syllabus chapter that come under quntitative aptitude in iibps po?

Originally Posted by nida faridi

what is the syllabus for bank po exam being held in september by ibps and please give me the guidelines and the name of books to be referred?should i practice from previous year papers?

Details About IBPS Bank PO Exam

IBPS stands for Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

The Common Written Exam (CWE) is conducted for selection of candidates for about 20 banks..

The exam will test you on the following areas :-

>> General Awareness
>> Quantitative Aptitude
>> Verbal Ability
>> Logical Reasoning

You need to satisfy the following minimum eligibility criterion for appearing for the IBPS CWE PO Exam :-

>> Candidate must be within the age limit of 20-30 years for general candidates, 3 years age relaxation for OBC, 5 years for SC/ST and 10 years for PWD candidates..

>> Candidate must have completed their degree from any recognized institute..

You can refer to the following books for your preparations :-

You can Click Here for more details on the exam..

Also go through the guide and previous year question papers that I have attached for your reference..

all the best..

With Warm Regards
Nitz