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Hi,


I request you to kindly send the 10 years question paper & answer of the TNPSC group 2 exam. my mail id is [email protected]

Thanking you
Rajesh

I want TNPSC Group-II All Question paper with answer key

hi


TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
1 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
1. Longest telomeres are found in which
cells?
a. Nerve cell
b. Retinal cell
c. Sperms
d. Skeletal muscle cell
2. Conjugated Hyper-bilirubinemia is found
in the following conditions, except
a. Dubin- Johnson syndrome
b. Criggler – Najjar syndrome
c. Rotor Syndrome
d. Gilbert syndrome
3. Virchow’s Node is located in the
a. Axilla
b. Mediastinum
c. Left Supraclavicular region
d. Sub-mandibular region
4. Carcinoma Prostate is characterized by
the following, except
a. androgen receptors
b. osteolytic secondaries
c. perineural invasion
d. single layer of cells
5. AIDS virus belongs to
a. Lassa virus
b. Lentic virus
c. Pox virus
d. Myxo virus
6. The commonest site of Tuberculosis in
the GIT is
a. Stomach
b. Jejunum
c. Ileo-cecal region
d. Colon
7. The histological type of Bronchogenic
carcinoma in smokers is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Small cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Undifferentiated carcinoma
8. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
a. Urothelial carcinoma - Transitional cells
b. Renal cell carcinoma - Blastemal cells
c. Nephroblastoma - Eosinophilic cells
d. Oncocytoma - Clear cells
9. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
a. X-linked recessive disorder - Glycogen
storage disease
b. Autosomal dominant disorder -
Hemophilia A
c. Autosomal recessive disorder - Sickle
cell anemia
d. Metabolic disorder - Hereditary
spherocytosis
10. The sequence of events in
Carcinogenesis is
a. Mutation in the genome, DNA damage,
Malignant neoplasm, Expression of altered
gene products.
b. Mutation in the Genome, DNA damage,
Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm
c. DNA damage, Expression of the altered
gene products, Mutation in the Genome,
Malignant neoplasm
d. DNA damage, Mutation in the genome,
Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm.
11. In Hemoglobin degradation, the first bile
pigment formed is
a. Bilirubin b. Biliverdin
c. Bile acids d. Cholic acids
12. In Hepatic Jaundice with cholestasis,
urine contains
a. high levels of conjugated bilirubin and
urobilinogen
b. high leves of conjugated bilirubin and
negligible urobilinogen
c. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and
urobilinogen
d. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and
negligible urobilinogen.
13. Following are the examples of
Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia except
a. Gilbert syndrome
b. Dubin – Johnson syndrome
c. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
d. Lucey – Driscoll syndrome
14. The Chloride Shift involves
a. K+ accompanying each bicarbonate that
leaves the erythrocyte
b. Carbonic acid leaving the erythrocyte
c. Bicarbonate leaving the erythrocyte in
exchange for chloride
d. Protons leaving the erythrocyte for each
Co2 that enters
TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
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15. A patient with PCo2 of 60 mm Hg and
Plasma Bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, is likely
to have
a. Acute metabolic acidosis
b. Acute respiratory acidosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Chronic metabolic acidosis
16. Most circulating T3 and T4 are bound to
a. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin
b. Thryroxine binding globulin
c. Gamma globulin
d. Thyroglobulin
17. In patients with primary hypothyroidism,
which of the following laboratory tests
will be useful?
a. Estimation of T3
b. Estimation of T4
c. Estimation of TBG
d. Detection of auto – antibodies..
18. Which of the following is required for
crystallization and storage of the
hormone Insulin?
a. Mn b. Mg
c. Ca d. Zn
19. Which of the following substances is
present in high concentration in the urine
of patients with Pheochromocytoma?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Nor – epinephrine
d. 3 – methoxy – 4 –OH Mandelic acid.
20. Secondary Hypogonadism is due to
a. Pituitary gonadotropin deficiency
b. Pituitary corticotrophin deficiency
c. Testicular deficiency
d. Ovarian deficiency
21. Precursor of Testosterone is
a. Methyl testosterone
b. Pregnenalone
c. Aldosterone
d. Cortisone
22. The principal steroid secreted by the
Fetal Adrenal cortex is
a. Progesterone
b. Dehydro EPI androsterone
c. Cotocosterone
d. Pregnenalone
23. Pneumothorax causes the
following,except
a. Reduced vital capacity
b. Abnormal dullness to percussion on the
affected side
c. Reduction in residual volume
d. Increased resonance on percussion on
affected side
24. Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle
can result from the following except
a. Irritation of bronchial mucosa
b. Cold stimulus to bronchial mucosa
c. Stimulation of local beta adreno –
receptors
d. A decrease in PCo2 in bronchial air
25. PR interval in electrocardiogram denotes
a. beginning of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
b. beginning of atrial depolarization to
beginning of ventricular depolarization
c. end of atrial depolarization to beginning of
ventricular depolarization
d. end of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
26. Work output of left ventricle is
a. 5 times more that of right
b. same as that of right
c. less than that of right
d. 20 times more than that of right
27. Positive Chronotropic effect means
a. increase in heart rate
b. increase in conductivity
c. increase in force of contraction
d. increase in excitability
28. Red colour – blindness is called
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia
c. Protanomaly d. Deuteranomaly
29. During Deep sleep there is a fall in
a. Hand skin temperature
b. Arterial Co2
c. Blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio
d. Metabolic rate
30. In Brown – Sequard syndrome , below
the level of lesion, on the same side
a. loss of fine touch
b. loss of vibration sense
c. loss of stereognosis
d. all of these
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31. The following are adverse reactions of
nitrates, except
a. Headache b. Postural hypotension
c. Tolerance d. Bradycardia
32. The following agents are used in Acute
Myocardial Infarction, except
a. Fibrinolytics b. Aspirin
c. Anti – fibrinolytics d. Heparin
33. The appropriate drug for Cardiogenic
Shock is
a. Adrenaline b. Dopamine
c. Isoprenaline d. Nor – adrenaline
34. The most suitable tetracycline for use in
a patient with impaired renal function is
a. Chlortetracycline b. Democlocycline
c. Oxytetracycline d. Doxycycline
35. The drug which does not possess H2
anti- histamine receptor antagonistic
action is
a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine
c. Nizatidine d. Loratidine
36. Which of the following hypolipidemic
agents causes constipation and
bloating?
a. Colestipol b. Cholestyramine
c. Both (a) and (b) d. none of these
37. The anti- asthma drug which cannot be
administered by inhalation is
a. Theophylline b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Budesonide d. Terbutaline
38. Co – trimoxazole is a combination of
a. pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
b. Trimethoprim and Sufixozaloe
c. Trimethoprim and sulfaphenazole
d. Trimethoprim and Sufamethoxazole
39. The drug used in prophylaxis of
Rheumatic fever is
a. Procaine pencillin
b. Benzyl pencillin
c. Benzathine pencillin
d. Cloxacillin
40. The drug used for extra-pyramidal
reaction to Chlorpromazine is
a. Physostigmine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Propranolol
d. Metaclopropamide
41. Which one of the following muscles
emerges through the two slips of Flexor
Retinaculum?
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Abductor pollicis longus
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
.
42. The sensory nerve given off by the
Axillary nerve is
a. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
b. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
c. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm
d. Posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm
43. Unlocking of the knee joint to permit the
flexion is caused by which muscle
a. Vastus medialis b. Biceps femoris
c. Popliteus d. Gatrocnemius
44. The nerve that supplies the skin over the
adjacent sides of big toe and second toe
is
a. sural b. Saphenous
c. Deep peroneal d. Superificial peroneal
45. The following is a branch of the fourth
part of Vertebral artery?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Pontine branches
d. Basilar artery
46. Palatine tonsil is developed from
a. First pharyngeal pouch
b. Second pharyngeal pouch
c. Tubotympanic recess
d. Third pharyngeal pouch
47. One of the following muscle is not a
muscle of mastication
a. Temporalis b. Masseter
c. Buccinator d. Lateral pterygoid
48. Impulse flow towards a nerve cell occurs
through
a. Dendrite b. Axon
c. Neuroglia d. none of these
49. Broca’s area is localized in
a. Superior temporal gyrus
b. Parietal lobe
c. Inferior frontal gyrus
d. Para-central lobule
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50. The following structures cross in front of
the vertebral column , except
a. Thoracic duct
b. Accesory Hemi – azygos vein
c. H emiazygos vein
d. Left superior intercostal vein
51. The commonest lump in the breast of a
young female is
a. Fibrocystic disease
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Early breast cancer
d. Phylloides tumor
52. Traction injury to epiphysis of the
vertebra is called
a. Osgood Schlatters disease
b. Kohlers disease
c. Severs disease
d. Scheurmanns disease
53. Trigger thumb is
a. Stenosing Tenosynovitis of Flexor Pollicis
Longus
b. S tenosing Tenosynovitis of Abd. Pol.
Longus and Ext. Pol. Brevis
c. Tenosynovitis of Abductor Pollicis
d. Tenosynovitis of Lumbircals and
Interossei
54. The most common infection of hand is
a. Acute paronychia
b. Chronic paronychia
c. Terminal pulp space infection
d. Web space infection
55. The common cause of Tennis Elbow is
a. Bursitis
b. Enthesopathy at the region
c. Radial head ostephyte
d. Entrapment of posterior interosseous
nerve
56. Most common complication of Clavicular
fracture is
a. Malunion
b. Non – union
c. Injury to brachial plexus
d. Shoulder stiffness
57. Maximum tourniquet time for upper limb
is
a. ½ hour b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour d. 2 hours
58. The following malignancies are common
in AIDS, except
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Primary CNS lymphoma
d. Ca – colon
59. Partial thickness burn is characterized by
all of the following except
a. becomes full thickness later
b. rarely causes severe physiological
derangement
c. heals without grafting
d. moist and blistered
60. Necrotising Fascitis is caused by all the
following organisms , except
a. Coliforms
b. Staphylococci
c. Bacteriodes
d. Clostridia
61. Kehr’s sign is positive in
a. Splenic rupture
b. Rupture of distended Gall bladder
c. Hepatic injury
d. Preforation of peptic ulcer
62. Lignocaine toxicity includes
a. Convulsions
b. Asystole
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. All of these
63. Mycosis fungoides is
a. Cutaneous lymphoma
b. Deep dermal fungal infection
c. Cutaneous tuberculosis infection
d. Skin eruptions due to rubella viruses
64. Common variety of piles is
a. Internal b. External
c. Internal – External d. none of these
65. Rectal strictures are more commonly
seen with
a. Carcinoma Rectum b. Syphilis
c. Chancroid d. LGV
66. The following are true about Idiopathic
Hypertrophic Aortic Stenosis, except
a. Autosomal dominant with complete
penetrance
b. Sudden death
c. Associated Mitral Regurgitation
d. Verapamil ameliorate symptoms
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67. Shrinking Lung syndrome is seen in
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
b. Systemic Sclerosis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Tuberculosis
68. All are autosomal dominant disorders
except
a. Tuberous Sclerosis b. Polyposis coli
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Myotonia dystonia
69. cANCA is most commonly associated
with
a. Wegeners Granulomatosis
b. Idiopathic Cresentric GN
c. Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis
d. none of these
70. Which of the following is not associated
with Tetany?
a. Chvosteks sign b. Trousseau sign
c. Cole’s sign d. Erb’s sign
71. Regularly irregular pulse occurs in
a. Sinus arrhythmias
b. II degree heart block
c. Multifocal extra-systoles
d. none of these
72. Pleural effusion protein analysis less
than 2 gms occurs in
a. Meigs syndrome b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Malignancy d. Pneumonia
73. Beta blockers are contra-indicated in
hypertension management when
associated with
a. Congestive heart failure b. Renal failure
c. Liver failure d. all of these
74. Palmar Erythema is associated with
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Pregnancy
c. Liver disorders d. All of them
75. All are true of Impotence, except
a. In India, Psychogenic causes are rare
b. Diabetes impotence is common
c. It occurs as the side effect of drug therapy
of hypertension
d. Papaverine improves the condition in
some.
76.The initial treatment for pre-eclampsia
consists of
a. Modified bed rest b. Salt restricted diet
c. Anti-hypertensives d. Sedatives.
77. Which of the following factors is most
important in stimulating fetal growth?
a. Insulin b. Growth hormone
c. Cortisol d. Human placental lactogen
78. Wound infections observed within the
first 2 days after Caesarean delivery are
usually caused by
a. Streptococci b. Clostridia
c. Staphylococci d. Bacteroides.
79. Maternal convulsions have been
associated with which of the following
fetal heart rate patterns?
a. Early decelerations
b. Variable decelerations
c. Prolonged decelerations
d. Accelerations
80. The Marshall – Marchetti Krantz
operation is a procedure done to correct
a. Chronic retention of urine
b. stress incontinence
c. urge incontinence
d. vesico-vaginal fistula
81. The following are diseases for which
extended sickness benefit is payable for
309 days under the ESI act, except
a. Hemiplegia b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Chronic renal failure d. Tuberculosis
82. The following are the complications of
Measles, except
a. Orchitis b. Diarrhea
c. Pneumonia d. Otitis media
83. Presumptive treatment for Malaria is
given to
a. persons who travel to malaria endemic
area
b. all fever cases
c. fever cases showing typical symptoms of
malaria
d. persons who are positive for malarial
parasites
84. Which of the following statements about
the characteristics of Tardive Dyskinesia
is true?
a. It is more common in men than women
b. It includes abnormal movements of
tongue
c. It occurs more often in treatment using
Clozepin than other Antipsychotics
d. It usually occurs within 3 months of
beginning of drug treatment.
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85. Conventional anti-psychotics can cause
a. hyper-prolactinemia
b. Gynacomastia
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. All of these
86. All of the following may be effective in
treating ADHD, except
a. Methyl phenydate hydrochlorine
b. chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Dextro-amphetamine sulphate
87. Oral Rehydrating Salt contains
a. 15gm/litre of Glucose
b. 20gm/litre of Glucose
c. 25gm/litre of Glucose
d. 30gm/litre of Glucose.
88. What is the commonest organism
responsible for neonatal meningitis?
a. Hemophilus influenza b. E.coli
c. Meningococci d. none of these
89. Cholera is characterized by all , except
a. Effortless vomiting
b. Painful watery (Rice water) stools
c. Hypotension
d. Acute renal failure
90. In a patient with fever for 4 days, typhoid
can be confirmed by
a. Positive WIDAL b. Positive blood culture
c. Leucocytosis d. Raised ESR.
91. Great Cardiac Vein lies in
a. Anterior inter-ventricular groove
b. Posterior inter-ventricular groove
c. Anterior atrio - ventricular groove
d. Posterior atrio-ventricular groove
92. The attachments of structure at the
superior surface of Anterior
intercondylar area of tibia from before
backwards are
a. Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior
cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
b. anterior horn of lateral meniscus, ,
anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus.
c. anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
d. anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of
lateral meniscus, Anterior horn of medial
meniscus.
93. All of the following structures pass deep
in the flexor retinaculum of hand, except
a. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Tendons of Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Tendon of Flexor pollcis longus
d. Tendon of the Flexor carpi ulnaris.
94. Rotator cuff is formed by the tendons of
a. Supraspinatus – Rhomboideus minor –
Subscapularis – Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres
major – Teres minor
c. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres
minor – Subscapularis
d. Infraspinatus – Subscapularis – Teres
minor – Pectoralis minor.
95. Wrist drop is the result of injury to
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Musculo-cutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve
96. Both dermal and epidermal Melanoblasts
are formed from
a. General body ectoderm
b. Ectodermal placode
c. Neural plate
d. Neural crest
97. Which one of the following diseases is
not X- linked recessive?
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia
d. Marfans syndrome
98. The trigone of the urinary bladder is
developed from
a. Vesicourethral canal
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Para-mesonephric duct
d. Allantoic diverticulum.
99. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
a. Duodenum – Large intestine
b. Jejunum – Valve of Kerkring
c. Ileum – Brunners Gland
d. Appendix – Peyers patch.
100. The structure that lies anterior to the
rectus abdominis above the costal
margin is
a. Costal cartilages
b. Internal oblique aponeurosis
c. Transvers abdominis aponeurosis
d. External oblique aponeurosis.
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101. In a surgical patient which of the
following preoperative preparation
effectively reduces infection rate?
a. Antiseptic bathing of the patients body
b. Shorter period of preoperative hospital
stay.
c. Preoperative shaving five minutes
before surgery
d. Antiseptic scrubbing of the surgeons
hands.
102. The safe method of administering
general anesthesia is through
a. Tracheostomy tube
b. Non- cuffed endotracheal tube
c. Cuffed endotracheal tube
d. Endobronchial tube.
103. The initial fluid replacement in a case
of burns is dependent upon
a. hematocrit value
b. blood pressure
c. surface area involved
d. the depth of the burns
104. Minimum amount of GI bleed to cause
Melena is
a. 30ml b. 60 ml
c. 120 ml d. 10 ml
105. Most malignant type of Ca stomach is
a. Proliferative growth
b. Ulcerative growth
c. Linitis plastica
d. Superficial spreading type
106. Emphysematous Cholecystitis occurs
commonly in
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Gas gangrene
107. Common site involved in Toxic
Megacolon is
a. Ascending colon b. Descending colon
c. Transverse colon
d. Sigmoido-rectal area.
108. Operation of choice for Resectable
Cancer Rectum 4 cms above the anal
verge is
a. Anterior resection
b. abdomino – perineal resection
c. resection and anastomosis
d. Davis procedure
109. Barret’s esophagus are found in
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Following burns
c. Following head injury
d. In Typhoid, T.B, and amebiasis
110. Gastric ulcer occurs most commonly at
a. Fundus b. Body
c. Pyloric antrum d. Greater curvature
111. Couvelaire uterus is seen in
a. Placenta previa b. Vasa previa
c. Abruptio placenta d. all of these
112. Maternal syphilis is associated with
abortion at
a. Early first trimester b. Second trimester
c. IUD d. None of these
113. Physiological edema of pregnancy is
best treated with the following
a. crepe bandage b. Diuretics
c. Rest d. Salt restricted diet
114. Amniocentesis is indicated in all,
except
a. alpha fetoprotein study b. breech
c. chromosomal study d. Fetla maturity
115. Neutrophil examination can indicate
sex from
a. number of lobes
b. presence of drumstick
c. nature of granules
d. size of cell
116. Common cause for Decubitus ulcer in
prolapse uterus is
a. Infection b. Injury
c. Conjestion d. Malignancy
117. Myomectomy is done in a patient to
conserve
a. Reproductive function
b. Menstrual function
c. Feminity
d. none of these
118. Condom is used in the following,
except
a. Following vasectomy
b. Treatment of Vasectomy
c. immunological infertility
d. Asherman syndrome
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119. Ovulation inducing drugs include the
following except
a. Clomiphene citrate
b. Human menopausal gonadotropin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Progesterone
120. Diagnosis of Vesicular mole can be
made confidently by
a. clinical examination b. X ray
c. HCG levels d. Ultrasound
121. Which of the following anti-epileptic
drugs is used as alternative to Lithium
in Mania and bipolar disorder?
a. Phenytoin b. Ethosuximide
c. Carbamazepine d. Vigabatrin
122. Long term thiazide therapy causes
hyperglycemia by
a. reducing insulin release
b. interfering with glucose utilization in
tissues
c. increasing sympathetic activity
d. increasing corticosteroid secretion.
123. Drug of choice for radical cure of
P.vivax malaria is
a. Chloroquine b. Quinine
c. Primaquine d. Halofantrine
124. The rationale of giving beta blockers in
angina is that they
a. dilate coronary arteries
b. decrease the perload
c. decrease the work of the heart
d. increase the O2 consumption
125. Effects of the Glucocorticoids include
all of the following except
a. Altered fat deposition
b. Increased blood glucose
c. increased skin protein systhesis
d. Inhibition of Leukotriene synthesis
126. The side effect which limits the use of
oral iron therapy is
a.epigastric pain b. black stool
c. staining of teeth d. metallic taste
127. The agent that is effective against
Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer is
a. Bismuth b. Pirenzepine
c. Aluminium hydroxide d. amoxicillin
128. The anti-neoplastic drug used in
Psoriasis is
a. Mitotane b. Mechlorethamine
c. Melphalan d. Methotrexate
129. Thyrotoxicosis can be treated with
a. Glucocorticoids b. Methimazole
c. Propyl thiouracil d. All of these
130. The anti-emetic drug with least
extrapyramidal side effect is
a. Metoclopropamide b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine d. Domperidone
131. The main type of lipids found in tissues
in starving individual in the end of first
week of fasting is
a. Phospholipids b. Triacylglycerol
c. Cholesterol d. Cholesterol esters.
132. Which of the following lipoproteins
would contribute to a measurement of
plasma cholesterol in a normal
individual following a 12 hour fast?
a. Chylomicrons b. VLDL
c. Both VLDL & LDL d. LDL
133. Ketosis is ascribed in part to
a. a slowdown in fat metabolism
b. an over-production of acetyl CoA
c. an under production of acetyl CoA.
d. an over-production of glucose
134. Respiratory distress syndrome in
premature infants is due to the absence
of ….. in the lung.
a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin
b. Cephalin
c. Phosphatidyl inositol
d. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
135. The free fatty acids of blood are
a. metabolically inert
b. mainly bound to beta lipoprotein
c. stored in the fat deposits
d. mainly bound to serum albumin
136. The normal route of Calcium excretion is
a. kidney and liver
b. kidney and intestine
c. kidney, intestine and pancreas
d. kidney, liver and pancreas.
137. A rise in blood calcium may indicate
a. Paget’s disease b. vitamin D deficiency
c. Cushing’s disease d. Hypervitaminosis D
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138. Hypermagnesemisa is seen in
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Renal failure
c. Chronic infection d. Malabsorption
139. Specific gravity of the normal urine is
a. 1.010 – 1.100 b. 1.040 – 1.100
c. 1.150 – 1.250 d. 1.010 – 1.025
140. Prothrombin time in obstructive
jaundice
a. is normal
b. decreases
c. becomes normal after Vitamin K
injection
d. increases after Vitamin K injection
141. Hashimotos disease is
a. autoimmune disease of thyroid
b. excessive secretion of Adrenal cortex
c. disorder of motor system of brain
d. none of these
142. Plasma cortisol level is maximal
around
a. 8-9 pm b. 2-3 pm
c. 8am d. midnight
143. Cushing syndrome is caused by
a. hyposecretion of growth hormone
b. hyposecretion of thyroxine
c. hypersecretion of cortisol
d. hypersecretion of pituitary hormones.
144. Identify the wrong statement about
cortisol:
a. Secretion increased following injury
b. favours protein synthesis
c. enhances effects of antigen – antibody
reactions
d. tends to lower blood pressure.
145. Osmotic diuresis effect usually occurs
in the
a. glomerulus b. Distal tubule
c. Collecting duct d. Proximal tube
146. The following statements are true for
Gastrin except in
a. stimulates secretion of Hcl and
Pepsinogen
b. decreases gastric antral mobility
c. weakly stimulates gall bladder
contraction
d. increases resting pressure of lower
esophageal sphincter.
147. Commonest carcinoma in female is of
a. uterus b. cervix
c. breast d. ovary
148. A cholagogue
a. increases the rate of secretion of bile
b. increases the contraction of gall bladder
c. increases the storage of bile in G.B.
d. none of these
149. Blood group antigen is
a. carried by sex chromosomes
b. attached to plasma proteins
c. attached to hemoglobin molecule
d. found in saliva
150. All of the following cells arises from a
common committed stem cells except
a. Red blood cells b. Platelets
c. Granulocytes d. Lymphocytes
151. Hypochromic microcytic RBCs are a
feature of anemia due to
a. Iron deficiency b. B12 deficiency
c. Folate deficiency d. All of these
152. Myelofibrosis is diagnosed by
a. Bone marrow aspiration
b. Peripheral smear
c. Trephine biopsy
d. Bone marrow imprint.
153. The commonest type of leukemia
encountered in children is
a. A.L.L1 type b. C.L.L
c. C.M.L juvenile type d. C.M.M.L
154. Neutrophilia is a common
manifestation in the following
conditions except
a. Pyogenic infection
b. Typhoid fever
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
155. Among the following, the condition
which presents with diminished
reticulocyte count is
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Bloodless anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Lueco-erythroblastic reaction
156. Pigments derived from hemoglobin are
all,. Except
a. Bilirubin b. Hematin
c. Lipofuchsin d. Hemosiderin
TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
10 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
157. The presence and rapid multiplication
of pathogenic bacteria in blood is
a. Septicemia b. toxemia
c. Bacteremia d. all of these
158. The following are sites of Metastatic
Calcification, except
a. alveoli b. blood vessels
c. lymph nodes d. renal tubules
159. Which of the following transmits the
HIV most efficiently?
a. Semen b. Blood
c. Saliva d. Breast milk
160. The aetiologic agent implicated in the
production of Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma is
a. Ebstein – Barr virus
b. Oral Candidiasis
c. Herpes simplex Type II
d. Rhinosporidium seeberi.
161. At the time of curettage for suspected
endometrial carcinoma, the uterus is
perforated with a sound. The treatment
would be
a. Conservative
b. Immediate laparatomy and
hysterectomy
c. Laparoscopy and closure of perforation
d. Immediate chemotherapy
162. Hysterosalpingogram is useful in the
diagnosis of all the following
conditions, except
a. Cervical incompetence
b. Tuberculous endometritis
c. Ashermans syndrome
d. Scar integrity in previous LSLs.
163. The LH surge precedes ovulation by
a. 12 hours b. 24-36 hours
c. 48 hours d. 60-72 hours
164. Post – Caesarean pregnancy should be
a. delivered by repeat Caesarean section
b. should have a vaginal delivery
c. an institutional delivery
d. none of these
165. Primi gravida is seen in the first
trimester with primary pulmonary
hypertension. You will advise
a. Medical termination of pregnancy
b. Hospitalization
c. Outpatient treatment
d. angiography.
166. In a twin pregnancy Caesarean section
is indicated in
a. Abruptio placentae
b. Acute polyhydramnios
c. When first fetus presens as transverse
lie
d. all of these
167. If a woman C/O. Bleeding per vaginum
with history of two months
amenorrhea. One should think of
a. Threatened abortion
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Metropathia hemorrhagica
d. All of these
168. Red degeneration of Fibroid is
associated with
a. Pregnancy
b. Aseptic infarction
c. Thrombosis
d. Leukocytosis
169. Which of the following is not an
indication for Classical Caesarean?
a. Carcinoma cervix
b. Cervical fibroid
c. Vesicovaginal fistula repaired previously
d. Classical Caesarean previously
170. Danazol is useful in
a. Amennorhea
b. Infertility
c. endometriosis
d. Fibroadenoma breast
171. All are true of Parathion poisoning
except
a. decrease in true cholinesterase level
b. respiratory depression common
c. pupil constricted
d. opiates ideal for convulsions
172. Complications of Mitral Stenosis
include all , except
a. acute left ventricular failure
b. Pulmonary apoplexy
c. Pneumonia
d. Infective endocarditis.
173. In India, for Rheumatic fever all are
present, except
a. Syndenhams Chorea
b. Erythema marginatum
c. arthralgia
d. Raised C reactive protein.
TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
11 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
174. In Atrial fibrillation, all are true except
a. varying intensity of first heart sound
b. precipitation or aggravation of existing
CCF
c. Pulse deficit rarely
d. embolic manifestations.
175. All are features of Pulmonary
Hypertesnion, except
a. Early diastolic murmur
b. ejection click
c. Canon vein in jugulars
d. Prominent palpable pulmonary artery
pulsations over chest.
176. Coarctation of aorta is associated with
all, except
a. Hypertension in lower limbs
b. Turners syndrome
c. Bicuspid aortic valves
d. Polycystic kidney.
177. All are true of methyl alcohol
poisoning, except
a. occurs in groups of persons
b. toxic effects due to acetaldehyde
c. causes blurring of vision
d. treatment is with ethyl alcohol.
178. streptokinase therapy is contra –
indicated in all, except
a. allergic reaction
b. second dose within six months
c. recent injury
d. age above 50 years.
179. Pulmonary hypertension occurs in all ,
except
a. Ostium secundum septal effect
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Fallot’s tetralogy
d. Mitral incompetence
180. All are true of opening snap in Mitral
Stenosis, except
a. it is absent when valve is calcified
b. occurs before II sound
c. heard all over precordium
d. ringing quality.
181. Boerhoove’s syndrome is
a. partial thickness rupture of esophagus
b. full thickness rupture of esophagus
c. Rupture of esophageal varices
d. Rupture of gastro – esophageal
junction.
182. Common Goitre in Iodine Deficiency is
a. Simple colloid b. Single nodule
c. Multiple Nodule d. Malignant nodule.
183. Plasma Cortisol levels show Diurnal
variation with highest values
a. in the morning b. at bed time
c. in the evening d. at midnight
184. Which of the following Naevi becomes
malignant?
a. Blue Naevus
b. Hairy Naevus
c. Junctional Naevus
d. Intradermal Naevus
185. Metabolic acidosis occurs in
a. Diabetes b. Starvation
c. Renal insufficiency d. all of these
186. Amaurosis fugax is
a. Hemiplegia caused by embolus in
middle cerebral artery
b. Fleeting blindness due to embolus in
central retinal artery
c. Gangrene of intestines due to
thrombosis of mesenteric artery
d. Splenic infarction due to throbosis of
splenic artery.
187. Step walls are associated with the
transmission of
a. Amebiasis b. Ascariasis
c. Ancylostomiasis d. Dracunculosis
188. The toxic agent in Epidemic Dropsy is
a. BOAA b. Ergot alkaloids
c. Sanginarine d. None of these
189. Evolution of Rash in a chicken pox
case passes through the following four
stages. Identify the correct order in
which they appear.
a. Macule, Papule, Scab, Vesicle.
b. Papule, Macule, Vesicle, Scab.
c. Vesicle, Papule, Macule, Scab.
d. Macule, Papule, Vesicle, Scab.
190. The Odds ratio is used as measure of
association in a
a. Retrospective Cohort Study
b. Cohort Study
c. Prospective Cohort Study
d. Case Control Study
TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
12 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
191. Causes of Hypergonadotrophic
hypogonadism are following, except
a. Klinefelters syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Leprosy.
192. Following are true about Psoriasis,
except
a. Well defined erythematous plaques
b. Parakeratosis
c. Not associated with HLA CW6
d. Exacerbated by Propranolol.
193. Clinical features of raised Intracranial
pressure include all, except
a. Tachycardia b. Vomitting
c. Personality changes d. 6th Nerve palsy
194. Pulsus Paradox occurs in
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Bronchial Asthma
c. Pneumo-thorax
d. all of these
195. Turners syndrome is associated with
all the following, except
a. Karyotype of 45 XO
b. Genital hypoplasia
c. Blind vagina
d. Streak ovaries
196. The condition of waxy flexibility is
encountered during examination of
patients with
a. Alcoholic Hallucinosis b. Mania
c. Catatonic Schizophrenia
d. Alzheimers disease
197. In the following, mention the drug
which is not used in Erythematous
Nodosum Leprosum.
a. Steroids b. Chlorpromazine
c. Thalidomide d. Adriamycin
198. The key mediator in Scar formation are
following, except
a. T.F.G beta b. FGF
c. Macrophages d. Polymorphs
199. In renal transplantation, the dreaded
cause for graft loss is
a. Acute rejection
b. Vascular thrombosis of artery.
c. Vascular thrombosis of vein
d. Ansatomatic dehiscence

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TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
1 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
1. Longest telomeres are found in which
cells?
a. Nerve cell
b. Retinal cell
c. Sperms
d. Skeletal muscle cell
2. Conjugated Hyper-bilirubinemia is found
in the following conditions, except
a. Dubin- Johnson syndrome
b. Criggler – Najjar syndrome
c. Rotor Syndrome
d. Gilbert syndrome
3. Virchow’s Node is located in the
a. Axilla
b. Mediastinum
c. Left Supraclavicular region
d. Sub-mandibular region
4. Carcinoma Prostate is characterized by
the following, except
a. androgen receptors
b. osteolytic secondaries
c. perineural invasion
d. single layer of cells
5. AIDS virus belongs to
a. Lassa virus
b. Lentic virus
c. Pox virus
d. Myxo virus
6. The commonest site of Tuberculosis in
the GIT is
a. Stomach
b. Jejunum
c. Ileo-cecal region
d. Colon
7. The histological type of Bronchogenic
carcinoma in smokers is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Small cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Undifferentiated carcinoma
8. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
a. Urothelial carcinoma - Transitional cells
b. Renal cell carcinoma - Blastemal cells
c. Nephroblastoma - Eosinophilic cells
d. Oncocytoma - Clear cells
9. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
a. X-linked recessive disorder - Glycogen
storage disease
b. Autosomal dominant disorder -
Hemophilia A
c. Autosomal recessive disorder - Sickle
cell anemia
d. Metabolic disorder - Hereditary
spherocytosis
10. The sequence of events in
Carcinogenesis is
a. Mutation in the genome, DNA damage,
Malignant neoplasm, Expression of altered
gene products.
b. Mutation in the Genome, DNA damage,
Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm
c. DNA damage, Expression of the altered
gene products, Mutation in the Genome,
Malignant neoplasm
d. DNA damage, Mutation in the genome,
Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm.
11. In Hemoglobin degradation, the first bile
pigment formed is
a. Bilirubin b. Biliverdin
c. Bile acids d. Cholic acids
12. In Hepatic Jaundice with cholestasis,
urine contains
a. high levels of conjugated bilirubin and
urobilinogen
b. high leves of conjugated bilirubin and
negligible urobilinogen
c. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and
urobilinogen
d. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and
negligible urobilinogen.
13. Following are the examples of
Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia except
a. Gilbert syndrome
b. Dubin – Johnson syndrome
c. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
d. Lucey – Driscoll syndrome
14. The Chloride Shift involves
a. K+ accompanying each bicarbonate that
leaves the erythrocyte
b. Carbonic acid leaving the erythrocyte
c. Bicarbonate leaving the erythrocyte in
exchange for chloride
d. Protons leaving the erythrocyte for each
Co2 that enters
TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
2 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
15. A patient with PCo2 of 60 mm Hg and
Plasma Bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, is likely
to have
a. Acute metabolic acidosis
b. Acute respiratory acidosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Chronic metabolic acidosis
16. Most circulating T3 and T4 are bound to
a. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin
b. Thryroxine binding globulin
c. Gamma globulin
d. Thyroglobulin
17. In patients with primary hypothyroidism,
which of the following laboratory tests
will be useful?
a. Estimation of T3
b. Estimation of T4
c. Estimation of TBG
d. Detection of auto – antibodies..
18. Which of the following is required for
crystallization and storage of the
hormone Insulin?
a. Mn b. Mg
c. Ca d. Zn
19. Which of the following substances is
present in high concentration in the urine
of patients with Pheochromocytoma?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Nor – epinephrine
d. 3 – methoxy – 4 –OH Mandelic acid.
20. Secondary Hypogonadism is due to
a. Pituitary gonadotropin deficiency
b. Pituitary corticotrophin deficiency
c. Testicular deficiency
d. Ovarian deficiency
21. Precursor of Testosterone is
a. Methyl testosterone
b. Pregnenalone
c. Aldosterone
d. Cortisone
22. The principal steroid secreted by the
Fetal Adrenal cortex is
a. Progesterone
b. Dehydro EPI androsterone
c. Cotocosterone
d. Pregnenalone
23. Pneumothorax causes the
following,except
a. Reduced vital capacity
b. Abnormal dullness to percussion on the
affected side
c. Reduction in residual volume
d. Increased resonance on percussion on
affected side
24. Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle
can result from the following except
a. Irritation of bronchial mucosa
b. Cold stimulus to bronchial mucosa
c. Stimulation of local beta adreno –
receptors
d. A decrease in PCo2 in bronchial air
25. PR interval in electrocardiogram denotes
a. beginning of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
b. beginning of atrial depolarization to
beginning of ventricular depolarization
c. end of atrial depolarization to beginning of
ventricular depolarization
d. end of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
26. Work output of left ventricle is
a. 5 times more that of right
b. same as that of right
c. less than that of right
d. 20 times more than that of right
27. Positive Chronotropic effect means
a. increase in heart rate
b. increase in conductivity
c. increase in force of contraction
d. increase in excitability
28. Red colour – blindness is called
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia
c. Protanomaly d. Deuteranomaly
29. During Deep sleep there is a fall in
a. Hand skin temperature
b. Arterial Co2
c. Blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio
d. Metabolic rate
30. In Brown – Sequard syndrome , below
the level of lesion, on the same side
a. loss of fine touch
b. loss of vibration sense
c. loss of stereognosis
d. all of these
TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
3 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
31. The following are adverse reactions of
nitrates, except
a. Headache b. Postural hypotension
c. Tolerance d. Bradycardia
32. The following agents are used in Acute
Myocardial Infarction, except
a. Fibrinolytics b. Aspirin
c. Anti – fibrinolytics d. Heparin
33. The appropriate drug for Cardiogenic
Shock is
a. Adrenaline b. Dopamine
c. Isoprenaline d. Nor – adrenaline
34. The most suitable tetracycline for use in
a patient with impaired renal function is
a. Chlortetracycline b. Democlocycline
c. Oxytetracycline d. Doxycycline
35. The drug which does not possess H2
anti- histamine receptor antagonistic
action is
a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine
c. Nizatidine d. Loratidine
36. Which of the following hypolipidemic
agents causes constipation and
bloating?
a. Colestipol b. Cholestyramine
c. Both (a) and (b) d. none of these
37. The anti- asthma drug which cannot be
administered by inhalation is
a. Theophylline b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Budesonide d. Terbutaline
38. Co – trimoxazole is a combination of
a. pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
b. Trimethoprim and Sufixozaloe
c. Trimethoprim and sulfaphenazole
d. Trimethoprim and Sufamethoxazole
39. The drug used in prophylaxis of
Rheumatic fever is
a. Procaine pencillin
b. Benzyl pencillin
c. Benzathine pencillin
d. Cloxacillin
40. The drug used for extra-pyramidal
reaction to Chlorpromazine is
a. Physostigmine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Propranolol
d. Metaclopropamide
41. Which one of the following muscles
emerges through the two slips of Flexor
Retinaculum?
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Abductor pollicis longus
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
.
42. The sensory nerve given off by the
Axillary nerve is
a. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
b. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
c. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm
d. Posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm
43. Unlocking of the knee joint to permit the
flexion is caused by which muscle
a. Vastus medialis b. Biceps femoris
c. Popliteus d. Gatrocnemius
44. The nerve that supplies the skin over the
adjacent sides of big toe and second toe
is
a. sural b. Saphenous
c. Deep peroneal d. Superificial peroneal
45. The following is a branch of the fourth
part of Vertebral artery?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Pontine branches
d. Basilar artery
46. Palatine tonsil is developed from
a. First pharyngeal pouch
b. Second pharyngeal pouch
c. Tubotympanic recess
d. Third pharyngeal pouch
47. One of the following muscle is not a
muscle of mastication
a. Temporalis b. Masseter
c. Buccinator d. Lateral pterygoid
48. Impulse flow towards a nerve cell occurs
through
a. Dendrite b. Axon
c. Neuroglia d. none of these
49. Broca’s area is localized in
a. Superior temporal gyrus
b. Parietal lobe
c. Inferior frontal gyrus
d. Para-central lobule
TNPSC 2005 – QUESTION PAPER
4 Visit us at www.pgmed.com
50. The following structures cross in front of
the vertebral column , except
a. Thoracic duct
b. Accesory Hemi – azygos vein
c. H emiazygos vein
d. Left superior intercostal vein
51. The commonest lump in the breast of a
young female is
a. Fibrocystic disease
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Early breast cancer
d. Phylloides tumor
52. Traction injury to epiphysis of the
vertebra is called
a. Osgood Schlatters disease
b. Kohlers disease
c. Severs disease
d. Scheurmanns disease
53. Trigger thumb is
a. Stenosing Tenosynovitis of Flexor Pollicis
Longus
b. S tenosing Tenosynovitis of Abd. Pol.
Longus and Ext. Pol. Brevis
c. Tenosynovitis of Abductor Pollicis
d. Tenosynovitis of Lumbircals and
Interossei
54. The most common infection of hand is
a. Acute paronychia
b. Chronic paronychia
c. Terminal pulp space infection
d. Web space infection
55. The common cause of Tennis Elbow is
a. Bursitis
b. Enthesopathy at the region
c. Radial head ostephyte
d. Entrapment of posterior interosseous
nerve
56. Most common complication of Clavicular
fracture is
a. Malunion
b. Non – union
c. Injury to brachial plexus
d. Shoulder stiffness
57. Maximum tourniquet time for upper limb
is
a. ½ hour b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour d. 2 hours
58. The following malignancies are common
in AIDS, except
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Primary CNS lymphoma
d. Ca – colon
59. Partial thickness burn is characterized by
all of the following except
a. becomes full thickness later
b. rarely causes severe physiological
derangement
c. heals without grafting
d. moist and blistered
60. Necrotising Fascitis is caused by all the
following organisms , except
a. Coliforms
b. Staphylococci
c. Bacteriodes
d. Clostridia
61. Kehr’s sign is positive in
a. Splenic rupture
b. Rupture of distended Gall bladder
c. Hepatic injury
d. Preforation of peptic ulcer
62. Lignocaine toxicity includes
a. Convulsions
b. Asystole
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. All of these
63. Mycosis fungoides is
a. Cutaneous lymphoma
b. Deep dermal fungal infection
c. Cutaneous tuberculosis infection
d. Skin eruptions due to rubella viruses
64. Common variety of piles is
a. Internal b. External
c. Internal – External d. none of these
65. Rectal strictures are more commonly
seen with
a. Carcinoma Rectum b. Syphilis
c. Chancroid d. LGV
66. The following are true about Idiopathic
Hypertrophic Aortic Stenosis, except
a. Autosomal dominant with complete
penetrance
b. Sudden death
c. Associated Mitral Regurgitation
d. Verapamil ameliorate symptoms
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67. Shrinking Lung syndrome is seen in
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
b. Systemic Sclerosis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Tuberculosis
68. All are autosomal dominant disorders
except
a. Tuberous Sclerosis b. Polyposis coli
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Myotonia dystonia
69. cANCA is most commonly associated
with
a. Wegeners Granulomatosis
b. Idiopathic Cresentric GN
c. Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis
d. none of these
70. Which of the following is not associated
with Tetany?
a. Chvosteks sign b. Trousseau sign
c. Cole’s sign d. Erb’s sign
71. Regularly irregular pulse occurs in
a. Sinus arrhythmias
b. II degree heart block
c. Multifocal extra-systoles
d. none of these
72. Pleural effusion protein analysis less
than 2 gms occurs in
a. Meigs syndrome b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Malignancy d. Pneumonia
73. Beta blockers are contra-indicated in
hypertension management when
associated with
a. Congestive heart failure b. Renal failure
c. Liver failure d. all of these
74. Palmar Erythema is associated with
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Pregnancy
c. Liver disorders d. All of them
75. All are true of Impotence, except
a. In India, Psychogenic causes are rare
b. Diabetes impotence is common
c. It occurs as the side effect of drug therapy
of hypertension
d. Papaverine improves the condition in
some.
76.The initial treatment for pre-eclampsia
consists of
a. Modified bed rest b. Salt restricted diet
c. Anti-hypertensives d. Sedatives.
77. Which of the following factors is most
important in stimulating fetal growth?
a. Insulin b. Growth hormone
c. Cortisol d. Human placental lactogen
78. Wound infections observed within the
first 2 days after Caesarean delivery are
usually caused by
a. Streptococci b. Clostridia
c. Staphylococci d. Bacteroides.
79. Maternal convulsions have been
associated with which of the following
fetal heart rate patterns?
a. Early decelerations
b. Variable decelerations
c. Prolonged decelerations
d. Accelerations
80. The Marshall – Marchetti Krantz
operation is a procedure done to correct
a. Chronic retention of urine
b. stress incontinence
c. urge incontinence
d. vesico-vaginal fistula
81. The following are diseases for which
extended sickness benefit is payable for
309 days under the ESI act, except
a. Hemiplegia b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Chronic renal failure d. Tuberculosis
82. The following are the complications of
Measles, except
a. Orchitis b. Diarrhea
c. Pneumonia d. Otitis media
83. Presumptive treatment for Malaria is
given to
a. persons who travel to malaria endemic
area
b. all fever cases
c. fever cases showing typical symptoms of
malaria
d. persons who are positive for malarial
parasites
84. Which of the following statements about
the characteristics of Tardive Dyskinesia
is true?
a. It is more common in men than women
b. It includes abnormal movements of
tongue
c. It occurs more often in treatment using
Clozepin than other Antipsychotics
d. It usually occurs within 3 months of
beginning of drug treatment.
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85. Conventional anti-psychotics can cause
a. hyper-prolactinemia
b. Gynacomastia
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. All of these
86. All of the following may be effective in
treating ADHD, except
a. Methyl phenydate hydrochlorine
b. chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Dextro-amphetamine sulphate
87. Oral Rehydrating Salt contains
a. 15gm/litre of Glucose
b. 20gm/litre of Glucose
c. 25gm/litre of Glucose
d. 30gm/litre of Glucose.
88. What is the commonest organism
responsible for neonatal meningitis?
a. Hemophilus influenza b. E.coli
c. Meningococci d. none of these
89. Cholera is characterized by all , except
a. Effortless vomiting
b. Painful watery (Rice water) stools
c. Hypotension
d. Acute renal failure
90. In a patient with fever for 4 days, typhoid
can be confirmed by
a. Positive WIDAL b. Positive blood culture
c. Leucocytosis d. Raised ESR.
91. Great Cardiac Vein lies in
a. Anterior inter-ventricular groove
b. Posterior inter-ventricular groove
c. Anterior atrio - ventricular groove
d. Posterior atrio-ventricular groove
92. The attachments of structure at the
superior surface of Anterior
intercondylar area of tibia from before
backwards are
a. Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior
cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
b. anterior horn of lateral meniscus, ,
anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus.
c. anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
d. anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of
lateral meniscus, Anterior horn of medial
meniscus.
93. All of the following structures pass deep
in the flexor retinaculum of hand, except
a. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Tendons of Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Tendon of Flexor pollcis longus
d. Tendon of the Flexor carpi ulnaris.
94. Rotator cuff is formed by the tendons of
a. Supraspinatus – Rhomboideus minor –
Subscapularis – Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres
major – Teres minor
c. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres
minor – Subscapularis
d. Infraspinatus – Subscapularis – Teres
minor – Pectoralis minor.
95. Wrist drop is the result of injury to
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Musculo-cutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve
96. Both dermal and epidermal Melanoblasts
are formed from
a. General body ectoderm
b. Ectodermal placode
c. Neural plate
d. Neural crest
97. Which one of the following diseases is
not X- linked recessive?
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia
d. Marfans syndrome
98. The trigone of the urinary bladder is
developed from
a. Vesicourethral canal
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Para-mesonephric duct
d. Allantoic diverticulum.
99. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
a. Duodenum – Large intestine
b. Jejunum – Valve of Kerkring
c. Ileum – Brunners Gland
d. Appendix – Peyers patch.
100. The structure that lies anterior to the
rectus abdominis above the costal
margin is
a. Costal cartilages
b. Internal oblique aponeurosis
c. Transvers abdominis aponeurosis
d. External oblique aponeurosis.
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101. In a surgical patient which of the
following preoperative preparation
effectively reduces infection rate?
a. Antiseptic bathing of the patients body
b. Shorter period of preoperative hospital
stay.
c. Preoperative shaving five minutes
before surgery
d. Antiseptic scrubbing of the surgeons
hands.
102. The safe method of administering
general anesthesia is through
a. Tracheostomy tube
b. Non- cuffed endotracheal tube
c. Cuffed endotracheal tube
d. Endobronchial tube.
103. The initial fluid replacement in a case
of burns is dependent upon
a. hematocrit value
b. blood pressure
c. surface area involved
d. the depth of the burns
104. Minimum amount of GI bleed to cause
Melena is
a. 30ml b. 60 ml
c. 120 ml d. 10 ml
105. Most malignant type of Ca stomach is
a. Proliferative growth
b. Ulcerative growth
c. Linitis plastica
d. Superficial spreading type
106. Emphysematous Cholecystitis occurs
commonly in
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Gas gangrene
107. Common site involved in Toxic
Megacolon is
a. Ascending colon b. Descending colon
c. Transverse colon
d. Sigmoido-rectal area.
108. Operation of choice for Resectable
Cancer Rectum 4 cms above the anal
verge is
a. Anterior resection
b. abdomino – perineal resection
c. resection and anastomosis
d. Davis procedure
109. Barret’s esophagus are found in
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Following burns
c. Following head injury
d. In Typhoid, T.B, and amebiasis
110. Gastric ulcer occurs most commonly at
a. Fundus b. Body
c. Pyloric antrum d. Greater curvature
111. Couvelaire uterus is seen in
a. Placenta previa b. Vasa previa
c. Abruptio placenta d. all of these
112. Maternal syphilis is associated with
abortion at
a. Early first trimester b. Second trimester
c. IUD d. None of these
113. Physiological edema of pregnancy is
best treated with the following
a. crepe bandage b. Diuretics
c. Rest d. Salt restricted diet
114. Amniocentesis is indicated in all,
except
a. alpha fetoprotein study b. breech
c. chromosomal study d. Fetla maturity
115. Neutrophil examination can indicate
sex from
a. number of lobes
b. presence of drumstick
c. nature of granules
d. size of cell
116. Common cause for Decubitus ulcer in
prolapse uterus is
a. Infection b. Injury
c. Conjestion d. Malignancy
117. Myomectomy is done in a patient to
conserve
a. Reproductive function
b. Menstrual function
c. Feminity
d. none of these
118. Condom is used in the following,
except
a. Following vasectomy
b. Treatment of Vasectomy
c. immunological infertility
d. Asherman syndrome
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119. Ovulation inducing drugs include the
following except
a. Clomiphene citrate
b. Human menopausal gonadotropin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Progesterone
120. Diagnosis of Vesicular mole can be
made confidently by
a. clinical examination b. X ray
c. HCG levels d. Ultrasound
121. Which of the following anti-epileptic
drugs is used as alternative to Lithium
in Mania and bipolar disorder?
a. Phenytoin b. Ethosuximide
c. Carbamazepine d. Vigabatrin
122. Long term thiazide therapy causes
hyperglycemia by
a. reducing insulin release
b. interfering with glucose utilization in
tissues
c. increasing sympathetic activity
d. increasing corticosteroid secretion.
123. Drug of choice for radical cure of
P.vivax malaria is
a. Chloroquine b. Quinine
c. Primaquine d. Halofantrine
124. The rationale of giving beta blockers in
angina is that they
a. dilate coronary arteries
b. decrease the perload
c. decrease the work of the heart
d. increase the O2 consumption
125. Effects of the Glucocorticoids include
all of the following except
a. Altered fat deposition
b. Increased blood glucose
c. increased skin protein systhesis
d. Inhibition of Leukotriene synthesis
126. The side effect which limits the use of
oral iron therapy is
a.epigastric pain b. black stool
c. staining of teeth d. metallic taste
127. The agent that is effective against
Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer is
a. Bismuth b. Pirenzepine
c. Aluminium hydroxide d. amoxicillin
128. The anti-neoplastic drug used in
Psoriasis is
a. Mitotane b. Mechlorethamine
c. Melphalan d. Methotrexate
129. Thyrotoxicosis can be treated with
a. Glucocorticoids b. Methimazole
c. Propyl thiouracil d. All of these
130. The anti-emetic drug with least
extrapyramidal side effect is
a. Metoclopropamide b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine d. Domperidone
131. The main type of lipids found in tissues
in starving individual in the end of first
week of fasting is
a. Phospholipids b. Triacylglycerol
c. Cholesterol d. Cholesterol esters.
132. Which of the following lipoproteins
would contribute to a measurement of
plasma cholesterol in a normal
individual following a 12 hour fast?
a. Chylomicrons b. VLDL
c. Both VLDL & LDL d. LDL
133. Ketosis is ascribed in part to
a. a slowdown in fat metabolism
b. an over-production of acetyl CoA
c. an under production of acetyl CoA.
d. an over-production of glucose
134. Respiratory distress syndrome in
premature infants is due to the absence
of ….. in the lung.
a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin
b. Cephalin
c. Phosphatidyl inositol
d. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
135. The free fatty acids of blood are
a. metabolically inert
b. mainly bound to beta lipoprotein
c. stored in the fat deposits
d. mainly bound to serum albumin
136. The normal route of Calcium excretion is
a. kidney and liver
b. kidney and intestine
c. kidney, intestine and pancreas
d. kidney, liver and pancreas.
137. A rise in blood calcium may indicate
a. Paget’s disease b. vitamin D deficiency
c. Cushing’s disease d. Hypervitaminosis D
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138. Hypermagnesemisa is seen in
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Renal failure
c. Chronic infection d. Malabsorption
139. Specific gravity of the normal urine is
a. 1.010 – 1.100 b. 1.040 – 1.100
c. 1.150 – 1.250 d. 1.010 – 1.025
140. Prothrombin time in obstructive
jaundice
a. is normal
b. decreases
c. becomes normal after Vitamin K
injection
d. increases after Vitamin K injection
141. Hashimotos disease is
a. autoimmune disease of thyroid
b. excessive secretion of Adrenal cortex
c. disorder of motor system of brain
d. none of these
142. Plasma cortisol level is maximal
around
a. 8-9 pm b. 2-3 pm
c. 8am d. midnight
143. Cushing syndrome is caused by
a. hyposecretion of growth hormone
b. hyposecretion of thyroxine
c. hypersecretion of cortisol
d. hypersecretion of pituitary hormones.
144. Identify the wrong statement about
cortisol:
a. Secretion increased following injury
b. favours protein synthesis
c. enhances effects of antigen – antibody
reactions
d. tends to lower blood pressure.
145. Osmotic diuresis effect usually occurs
in the
a. glomerulus b. Distal tubule
c. Collecting duct d. Proximal tube
146. The following statements are true for
Gastrin except in
a. stimulates secretion of Hcl and
Pepsinogen
b. decreases gastric antral mobility
c. weakly stimulates gall bladder
contraction
d. increases resting pressure of lower
esophageal sphincter.
147. Commonest carcinoma in female is of
a. uterus b. cervix
c. breast d. ovary
148. A cholagogue
a. increases the rate of secretion of bile
b. increases the contraction of gall bladder
c. increases the storage of bile in G.B.
d. none of these
149. Blood group antigen is
a. carried by sex chromosomes
b. attached to plasma proteins
c. attached to hemoglobin molecule
d. found in saliva
150. All of the following cells arises from a
common committed stem cells except
a. Red blood cells b. Platelets
c. Granulocytes d. Lymphocytes
151. Hypochromic microcytic RBCs are a
feature of anemia due to
a. Iron deficiency b. B12 deficiency
c. Folate deficiency d. All of these
152. Myelofibrosis is diagnosed by
a. Bone marrow aspiration
b. Peripheral smear
c. Trephine biopsy
d. Bone marrow imprint.
153. The commonest type of leukemia
encountered in children is
a. A.L.L1 type b. C.L.L
c. C.M.L juvenile type d. C.M.M.L
154. Neutrophilia is a common
manifestation in the following
conditions except
a. Pyogenic infection
b. Typhoid fever
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
155. Among the following, the condition
which presents with diminished
reticulocyte count is
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Bloodless anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Lueco-erythroblastic reaction
156. Pigments derived from hemoglobin are
all,. Except
a. Bilirubin b. Hematin
c. Lipofuchsin d. Hemosiderin
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157. The presence and rapid multiplication
of pathogenic bacteria in blood is
a. Septicemia b. toxemia
c. Bacteremia d. all of these
158. The following are sites of Metastatic
Calcification, except
a. alveoli b. blood vessels
c. lymph nodes d. renal tubules
159. Which of the following transmits the
HIV most efficiently?
a. Semen b. Blood
c. Saliva d. Breast milk
160. The aetiologic agent implicated in the
production of Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma is
a. Ebstein – Barr virus
b. Oral Candidiasis
c. Herpes simplex Type II
d. Rhinosporidium seeberi.
161. At the time of curettage for suspected
endometrial carcinoma, the uterus is
perforated with a sound. The treatment
would be
a. Conservative
b. Immediate laparatomy and
hysterectomy
c. Laparoscopy and closure of perforation
d. Immediate chemotherapy
162. Hysterosalpingogram is useful in the
diagnosis of all the following
conditions, except
a. Cervical incompetence
b. Tuberculous endometritis
c. Ashermans syndrome
d. Scar integrity in previous LSLs.
163. The LH surge precedes ovulation by
a. 12 hours b. 24-36 hours
c. 48 hours d. 60-72 hours
164. Post – Caesarean pregnancy should be
a. delivered by repeat Caesarean section
b. should have a vaginal delivery
c. an institutional delivery
d. none of these
165. Primi gravida is seen in the first
trimester with primary pulmonary
hypertension. You will advise
a. Medical termination of pregnancy
b. Hospitalization
c. Outpatient treatment
d. angiography.
166. In a twin pregnancy Caesarean section
is indicated in
a. Abruptio placentae
b. Acute polyhydramnios
c. When first fetus presens as transverse
lie
d. all of these
167. If a woman C/O. Bleeding per vaginum
with history of two months
amenorrhea. One should think of
a. Threatened abortion
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Metropathia hemorrhagica
d. All of these
168. Red degeneration of Fibroid is
associated with
a. Pregnancy
b. Aseptic infarction
c. Thrombosis
d. Leukocytosis
169. Which of the following is not an
indication for Classical Caesarean?
a. Carcinoma cervix
b. Cervical fibroid
c. Vesicovaginal fistula repaired previously
d. Classical Caesarean previously
170. Danazol is useful in
a. Amennorhea
b. Infertility
c. endometriosis
d. Fibroadenoma breast
171. All are true of Parathion poisoning
except
a. decrease in true cholinesterase level
b. respiratory depression common
c. pupil constricted
d. opiates ideal for convulsions
172. Complications of Mitral Stenosis
include all , except
a. acute left ventricular failure
b. Pulmonary apoplexy
c. Pneumonia
d. Infective endocarditis.
173. In India, for Rheumatic fever all are
present, except
a. Syndenhams Chorea
b. Erythema marginatum
c. arthralgia
d. Raised C reactive protein.
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174. In Atrial fibrillation, all are true except
a. varying intensity of first heart sound
b. precipitation or aggravation of existing
CCF
c. Pulse deficit rarely
d. embolic manifestations.
175. All are features of Pulmonary
Hypertesnion, except
a. Early diastolic murmur
b. ejection click
c. Canon vein in jugulars
d. Prominent palpable pulmonary artery
pulsations over chest.
176. Coarctation of aorta is associated with
all, except
a. Hypertension in lower limbs
b. Turners syndrome
c. Bicuspid aortic valves
d. Polycystic kidney.
177. All are true of methyl alcohol
poisoning, except
a. occurs in groups of persons
b. toxic effects due to acetaldehyde
c. causes blurring of vision
d. treatment is with ethyl alcohol.
178. streptokinase therapy is contra –
indicated in all, except
a. allergic reaction
b. second dose within six months
c. recent injury
d. age above 50 years.
179. Pulmonary hypertension occurs in all ,
except
a. Ostium secundum septal effect
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Fallot’s tetralogy
d. Mitral incompetence
180. All are true of opening snap in Mitral
Stenosis, except
a. it is absent when valve is calcified
b. occurs before II sound
c. heard all over precordium
d. ringing quality.
181. Boerhoove’s syndrome is
a. partial thickness rupture of esophagus
b. full thickness rupture of esophagus
c. Rupture of esophageal varices
d. Rupture of gastro – esophageal
junction.
182. Common Goitre in Iodine Deficiency is
a. Simple colloid b. Single nodule
c. Multiple Nodule d. Malignant nodule.
183. Plasma Cortisol levels show Diurnal
variation with highest values
a. in the morning b. at bed time
c. in the evening d. at midnight
184. Which of the following Naevi becomes
malignant?
a. Blue Naevus
b. Hairy Naevus
c. Junctional Naevus
d. Intradermal Naevus
185. Metabolic acidosis occurs in
a. Diabetes b. Starvation
c. Renal insufficiency d. all of these
186. Amaurosis fugax is
a. Hemiplegia caused by embolus in
middle cerebral artery
b. Fleeting blindness due to embolus in
central retinal artery
c. Gangrene of intestines due to
thrombosis of mesenteric artery
d. Splenic infarction due to throbosis of
splenic artery.
187. Step walls are associated with the
transmission of
a. Amebiasis b. Ascariasis
c. Ancylostomiasis d. Dracunculosis
188. The toxic agent in Epidemic Dropsy is
a. BOAA b. Ergot alkaloids
c. Sanginarine d. None of these
189. Evolution of Rash in a chicken pox
case passes through the following four
stages. Identify the correct order in
which they appear.
a. Macule, Papule, Scab, Vesicle.
b. Papule, Macule, Vesicle, Scab.
c. Vesicle, Papule, Macule, Scab.
d. Macule, Papule, Vesicle, Scab.
190. The Odds ratio is used as measure of
association in a
a. Retrospective Cohort Study
b. Cohort Study
c. Prospective Cohort Study
d. Case Control Study
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191. Causes of Hypergonadotrophic
hypogonadism are following, except
a. Klinefelters syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Leprosy.
192. Following are true about Psoriasis,
except
a. Well defined erythematous plaques
b. Parakeratosis
c. Not associated with HLA CW6
d. Exacerbated by Propranolol.
193. Clinical features of raised Intracranial
pressure include all, except
a. Tachycardia b. Vomitting
c. Personality changes d. 6th Nerve palsy
194. Pulsus Paradox occurs in
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Bronchial Asthma
c. Pneumo-thorax
d. all of these
195. Turners syndrome is associated with
all the following, except
a. Karyotype of 45 XO
b. Genital hypoplasia
c. Blind vagina
d. Streak ovaries
196. The condition of waxy flexibility is
encountered during examination of
patients with
a. Alcoholic Hallucinosis b. Mania
c. Catatonic Schizophrenia
d. Alzheimers disease
197. In the following, mention the drug
which is not used in Erythematous
Nodosum Leprosum.
a. Steroids b. Chlorpromazine
c. Thalidomide d. Adriamycin
198. The key mediator in Scar formation are
following, except
a. T.F.G beta b. FGF
c. Macrophages d. Polymorphs
199. In renal transplantation, the dreaded
cause for graft loss is
a. Acute rejection
b. Vascular thrombosis of artery.
c. Vascular thrombosis of vein
d. Ansatomatic dehiscence
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1. Longest telomeres are found in which
cells?
a. Nerve cell
b. Retinal cell
c. Sperms
d. Skeletal muscle cell
2. Conjugated Hyper-bilirubinemia is found
in the following conditions, except
a. Dubin- Johnson syndrome
b. Criggler – Najjar syndrome
c. Rotor Syndrome
d. Gilbert syndrome
3. Virchow’s Node is located in the
a. Axilla
b. Mediastinum
c. Left Supraclavicular region
d. Sub-mandibular region
4. Carcinoma Prostate is characterized by
the following, except
a. androgen receptors
b. osteolytic secondaries
c. perineural invasion
d. single layer of cells
5. AIDS virus belongs to
a. Lassa virus
b. Lentic virus
c. Pox virus
d. Myxo virus
6. The commonest site of Tuberculosis in
the GIT is
a. Stomach
b. Jejunum
c. Ileo-cecal region
d. Colon
7. The histological type of Bronchogenic
carcinoma in smokers is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Small cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Undifferentiated carcinoma
8. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
a. Urothelial carcinoma - Transitional cells
b. Renal cell carcinoma - Blastemal cells
c. Nephroblastoma - Eosinophilic cells
d. Oncocytoma - Clear cells
9. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
a. X-linked recessive disorder - Glycogen
storage disease
b. Autosomal dominant disorder -
Hemophilia A
c. Autosomal recessive disorder - Sickle
cell anemia
d. Metabolic disorder - Hereditary
spherocytosis
10. The sequence of events in
Carcinogenesis is
a. Mutation in the genome, DNA damage,
Malignant neoplasm, Expression of altered
gene products.
b. Mutation in the Genome, DNA damage,
Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm
c. DNA damage, Expression of the altered
gene products, Mutation in the Genome,
Malignant neoplasm
d. DNA damage, Mutation in the genome,
Expression of the altered gene products,
Malignant neoplasm.
11. In Hemoglobin degradation, the first bile
pigment formed is
a. Bilirubin b. Biliverdin
c. Bile acids d. Cholic acids
12. In Hepatic Jaundice with cholestasis,
urine contains
a. high levels of conjugated bilirubin and
urobilinogen
b. high leves of conjugated bilirubin and
negligible urobilinogen
c. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and
urobilinogen
d. high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and
negligible urobilinogen.
13. Following are the examples of
Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia except
a. Gilbert syndrome
b. Dubin – Johnson syndrome
c. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
d. Lucey – Driscoll syndrome
14. The Chloride Shift involves
a. K+ accompanying each bicarbonate that
leaves the erythrocyte
b. Carbonic acid leaving the erythrocyte
c. Bicarbonate leaving the erythrocyte in
exchange for chloride
d. Protons leaving the erythrocyte for each
Co2 that enters
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15. A patient with PCo2 of 60 mm Hg and
Plasma Bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, is likely
to have
a. Acute metabolic acidosis
b. Acute respiratory acidosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Chronic metabolic acidosis
16. Most circulating T3 and T4 are bound to
a. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin
b. Thryroxine binding globulin
c. Gamma globulin
d. Thyroglobulin
17. In patients with primary hypothyroidism,
which of the following laboratory tests
will be useful?
a. Estimation of T3
b. Estimation of T4
c. Estimation of TBG
d. Detection of auto – antibodies..
18. Which of the following is required for
crystallization and storage of the
hormone Insulin?
a. Mn b. Mg
c. Ca d. Zn
19. Which of the following substances is
present in high concentration in the urine
of patients with Pheochromocytoma?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Nor – epinephrine
d. 3 – methoxy – 4 –OH Mandelic acid.
20. Secondary Hypogonadism is due to
a. Pituitary gonadotropin deficiency
b. Pituitary corticotrophin deficiency
c. Testicular deficiency
d. Ovarian deficiency
21. Precursor of Testosterone is
a. Methyl testosterone
b. Pregnenalone
c. Aldosterone
d. Cortisone
22. The principal steroid secreted by the
Fetal Adrenal cortex is
a. Progesterone
b. Dehydro EPI androsterone
c. Cotocosterone
d. Pregnenalone
23. Pneumothorax causes the
following,except
a. Reduced vital capacity
b. Abnormal dullness to percussion on the
affected side
c. Reduction in residual volume
d. Increased resonance on percussion on
affected side
24. Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle
can result from the following except
a. Irritation of bronchial mucosa
b. Cold stimulus to bronchial mucosa
c. Stimulation of local beta adreno –
receptors
d. A decrease in PCo2 in bronchial air
25. PR interval in electrocardiogram denotes
a. beginning of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
b. beginning of atrial depolarization to
beginning of ventricular depolarization
c. end of atrial depolarization to beginning of
ventricular depolarization
d. end of atrial depolarization to end of
ventricular depolarization
26. Work output of left ventricle is
a. 5 times more that of right
b. same as that of right
c. less than that of right
d. 20 times more than that of right
27. Positive Chronotropic effect means
a. increase in heart rate
b. increase in conductivity
c. increase in force of contraction
d. increase in excitability
28. Red colour – blindness is called
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia
c. Protanomaly d. Deuteranomaly
29. During Deep sleep there is a fall in
a. Hand skin temperature
b. Arterial Co2
c. Blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio
d. Metabolic rate
30. In Brown – Sequard syndrome , below
the level of lesion, on the same side
a. loss of fine touch
b. loss of vibration sense
c. loss of stereognosis
d. all of these
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31. The following are adverse reactions of
nitrates, except
a. Headache b. Postural hypotension
c. Tolerance d. Bradycardia
32. The following agents are used in Acute
Myocardial Infarction, except
a. Fibrinolytics b. Aspirin
c. Anti – fibrinolytics d. Heparin
33. The appropriate drug for Cardiogenic
Shock is
a. Adrenaline b. Dopamine
c. Isoprenaline d. Nor – adrenaline
34. The most suitable tetracycline for use in
a patient with impaired renal function is
a. Chlortetracycline b. Democlocycline
c. Oxytetracycline d. Doxycycline
35. The drug which does not possess H2
anti- histamine receptor antagonistic
action is
a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine
c. Nizatidine d. Loratidine
36. Which of the following hypolipidemic
agents causes constipation and
bloating?
a. Colestipol b. Cholestyramine
c. Both (a) and (b) d. none of these
37. The anti- asthma drug which cannot be
administered by inhalation is
a. Theophylline b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Budesonide d. Terbutaline
38. Co – trimoxazole is a combination of
a. pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
b. Trimethoprim and Sufixozaloe
c. Trimethoprim and sulfaphenazole
d. Trimethoprim and Sufamethoxazole
39. The drug used in prophylaxis of
Rheumatic fever is
a. Procaine pencillin
b. Benzyl pencillin
c. Benzathine pencillin
d. Cloxacillin
40. The drug used for extra-pyramidal
reaction to Chlorpromazine is
a. Physostigmine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Propranolol
d. Metaclopropamide
41. Which one of the following muscles
emerges through the two slips of Flexor
Retinaculum?
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Abductor pollicis longus
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
.
42. The sensory nerve given off by the
Axillary nerve is
a. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
b. Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
c. Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm
d. Posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm
43. Unlocking of the knee joint to permit the
flexion is caused by which muscle
a. Vastus medialis b. Biceps femoris
c. Popliteus d. Gatrocnemius
44. The nerve that supplies the skin over the
adjacent sides of big toe and second toe
is
a. sural b. Saphenous
c. Deep peroneal d. Superificial peroneal
45. The following is a branch of the fourth
part of Vertebral artery?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Pontine branches
d. Basilar artery
46. Palatine tonsil is developed from
a. First pharyngeal pouch
b. Second pharyngeal pouch
c. Tubotympanic recess
d. Third pharyngeal pouch
47. One of the following muscle is not a
muscle of mastication
a. Temporalis b. Masseter
c. Buccinator d. Lateral pterygoid
48. Impulse flow towards a nerve cell occurs
through
a. Dendrite b. Axon
c. Neuroglia d. none of these
49. Broca’s area is localized in
a. Superior temporal gyrus
b. Parietal lobe
c. Inferior frontal gyrus
d. Para-central lobule
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50. The following structures cross in front of
the vertebral column , except
a. Thoracic duct
b. Accesory Hemi – azygos vein
c. H emiazygos vein
d. Left superior intercostal vein
51. The commonest lump in the breast of a
young female is
a. Fibrocystic disease
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Early breast cancer
d. Phylloides tumor
52. Traction injury to epiphysis of the
vertebra is called
a. Osgood Schlatters disease
b. Kohlers disease
c. Severs disease
d. Scheurmanns disease
53. Trigger thumb is
a. Stenosing Tenosynovitis of Flexor Pollicis
Longus
b. S tenosing Tenosynovitis of Abd. Pol.
Longus and Ext. Pol. Brevis
c. Tenosynovitis of Abductor Pollicis
d. Tenosynovitis of Lumbircals and
Interossei
54. The most common infection of hand is
a. Acute paronychia
b. Chronic paronychia
c. Terminal pulp space infection
d. Web space infection
55. The common cause of Tennis Elbow is
a. Bursitis
b. Enthesopathy at the region
c. Radial head ostephyte
d. Entrapment of posterior interosseous
nerve
56. Most common complication of Clavicular
fracture is
a. Malunion
b. Non – union
c. Injury to brachial plexus
d. Shoulder stiffness
57. Maximum tourniquet time for upper limb
is
a. ½ hour b. 1 hour
c. 1 ½ hour d. 2 hours
58. The following malignancies are common
in AIDS, except
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Primary CNS lymphoma
d. Ca – colon
59. Partial thickness burn is characterized by
all of the following except
a. becomes full thickness later
b. rarely causes severe physiological
derangement
c. heals without grafting
d. moist and blistered
60. Necrotising Fascitis is caused by all the
following organisms , except
a. Coliforms
b. Staphylococci
c. Bacteriodes
d. Clostridia
61. Kehr’s sign is positive in
a. Splenic rupture
b. Rupture of distended Gall bladder
c. Hepatic injury
d. Preforation of peptic ulcer
62. Lignocaine toxicity includes
a. Convulsions
b. Asystole
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. All of these
63. Mycosis fungoides is
a. Cutaneous lymphoma
b. Deep dermal fungal infection
c. Cutaneous tuberculosis infection
d. Skin eruptions due to rubella viruses
64. Common variety of piles is
a. Internal b. External
c. Internal – External d. none of these
65. Rectal strictures are more commonly
seen with
a. Carcinoma Rectum b. Syphilis
c. Chancroid d. LGV
66. The following are true about Idiopathic
Hypertrophic Aortic Stenosis, except
a. Autosomal dominant with complete
penetrance
b. Sudden death
c. Associated Mitral Regurgitation
d. Verapamil ameliorate symptoms
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67. Shrinking Lung syndrome is seen in
a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
b. Systemic Sclerosis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Tuberculosis
68. All are autosomal dominant disorders
except
a. Tuberous Sclerosis b. Polyposis coli
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Myotonia dystonia
69. cANCA is most commonly associated
with
a. Wegeners Granulomatosis
b. Idiopathic Cresentric GN
c. Diffuse Glomerulosclerosis
d. none of these
70. Which of the following is not associated
with Tetany?
a. Chvosteks sign b. Trousseau sign
c. Cole’s sign d. Erb’s sign
71. Regularly irregular pulse occurs in
a. Sinus arrhythmias
b. II degree heart block
c. Multifocal extra-systoles
d. none of these
72. Pleural effusion protein analysis less
than 2 gms occurs in
a. Meigs syndrome b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Malignancy d. Pneumonia
73. Beta blockers are contra-indicated in
hypertension management when
associated with
a. Congestive heart failure b. Renal failure
c. Liver failure d. all of these
74. Palmar Erythema is associated with
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Pregnancy
c. Liver disorders d. All of them
75. All are true of Impotence, except
a. In India, Psychogenic causes are rare
b. Diabetes impotence is common
c. It occurs as the side effect of drug therapy
of hypertension
d. Papaverine improves the condition in
some.
76.The initial treatment for pre-eclampsia
consists of
a. Modified bed rest b. Salt restricted diet
c. Anti-hypertensives d. Sedatives.
77. Which of the following factors is most
important in stimulating fetal growth?
a. Insulin b. Growth hormone
c. Cortisol d. Human placental lactogen
78. Wound infections observed within the
first 2 days after Caesarean delivery are
usually caused by
a. Streptococci b. Clostridia
c. Staphylococci d. Bacteroides.
79. Maternal convulsions have been
associated with which of the following
fetal heart rate patterns?
a. Early decelerations
b. Variable decelerations
c. Prolonged decelerations
d. Accelerations
80. The Marshall – Marchetti Krantz
operation is a procedure done to correct
a. Chronic retention of urine
b. stress incontinence
c. urge incontinence
d. vesico-vaginal fistula
81. The following are diseases for which
extended sickness benefit is payable for
309 days under the ESI act, except
a. Hemiplegia b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Chronic renal failure d. Tuberculosis
82. The following are the complications of
Measles, except
a. Orchitis b. Diarrhea
c. Pneumonia d. Otitis media
83. Presumptive treatment for Malaria is
given to
a. persons who travel to malaria endemic
area
b. all fever cases
c. fever cases showing typical symptoms of
malaria
d. persons who are positive for malarial
parasites
84. Which of the following statements about
the characteristics of Tardive Dyskinesia
is true?
a. It is more common in men than women
b. It includes abnormal movements of
tongue
c. It occurs more often in treatment using
Clozepin than other Antipsychotics
d. It usually occurs within 3 months of
beginning of drug treatment.
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85. Conventional anti-psychotics can cause
a. hyper-prolactinemia
b. Gynacomastia
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. All of these
86. All of the following may be effective in
treating ADHD, except
a. Methyl phenydate hydrochlorine
b. chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Dextro-amphetamine sulphate
87. Oral Rehydrating Salt contains
a. 15gm/litre of Glucose
b. 20gm/litre of Glucose
c. 25gm/litre of Glucose
d. 30gm/litre of Glucose.
88. What is the commonest organism
responsible for neonatal meningitis?
a. Hemophilus influenza b. E.coli
c. Meningococci d. none of these
89. Cholera is characterized by all , except
a. Effortless vomiting
b. Painful watery (Rice water) stools
c. Hypotension
d. Acute renal failure
90. In a patient with fever for 4 days, typhoid
can be confirmed by
a. Positive WIDAL b. Positive blood culture
c. Leucocytosis d. Raised ESR.
91. Great Cardiac Vein lies in
a. Anterior inter-ventricular groove
b. Posterior inter-ventricular groove
c. Anterior atrio - ventricular groove
d. Posterior atrio-ventricular groove
92. The attachments of structure at the
superior surface of Anterior
intercondylar area of tibia from before
backwards are
a. Anterior horn of medial meniscus, anterior
cruciate ligament, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
b. anterior horn of lateral meniscus, ,
anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus.
c. anterior cruciate ligament, Anterior horn of
medial meniscus, anterior horn of lateral
meniscus.
d. anterior cruciate ligament, anterior horn of
lateral meniscus, Anterior horn of medial
meniscus.
93. All of the following structures pass deep
in the flexor retinaculum of hand, except
a. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Tendons of Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Tendon of Flexor pollcis longus
d. Tendon of the Flexor carpi ulnaris.
94. Rotator cuff is formed by the tendons of
a. Supraspinatus – Rhomboideus minor –
Subscapularis – Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres
major – Teres minor
c. Supraspinatus – Infraspinatus – Teres
minor – Subscapularis
d. Infraspinatus – Subscapularis – Teres
minor – Pectoralis minor.
95. Wrist drop is the result of injury to
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Musculo-cutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve
96. Both dermal and epidermal Melanoblasts
are formed from
a. General body ectoderm
b. Ectodermal placode
c. Neural plate
d. Neural crest
97. Which one of the following diseases is
not X- linked recessive?
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia
d. Marfans syndrome
98. The trigone of the urinary bladder is
developed from
a. Vesicourethral canal
b. Mesonephric duct
c. Para-mesonephric duct
d. Allantoic diverticulum.
99. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
a. Duodenum – Large intestine
b. Jejunum – Valve of Kerkring
c. Ileum – Brunners Gland
d. Appendix – Peyers patch.
100. The structure that lies anterior to the
rectus abdominis above the costal
margin is
a. Costal cartilages
b. Internal oblique aponeurosis
c. Transvers abdominis aponeurosis
d. External oblique aponeurosis.
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101. In a surgical patient which of the
following preoperative preparation
effectively reduces infection rate?
a. Antiseptic bathing of the patients body
b. Shorter period of preoperative hospital
stay.
c. Preoperative shaving five minutes
before surgery
d. Antiseptic scrubbing of the surgeons
hands.
102. The safe method of administering
general anesthesia is through
a. Tracheostomy tube
b. Non- cuffed endotracheal tube
c. Cuffed endotracheal tube
d. Endobronchial tube.
103. The initial fluid replacement in a case
of burns is dependent upon
a. hematocrit value
b. blood pressure
c. surface area involved
d. the depth of the burns
104. Minimum amount of GI bleed to cause
Melena is
a. 30ml b. 60 ml
c. 120 ml d. 10 ml
105. Most malignant type of Ca stomach is
a. Proliferative growth
b. Ulcerative growth
c. Linitis plastica
d. Superficial spreading type
106. Emphysematous Cholecystitis occurs
commonly in
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Gas gangrene
107. Common site involved in Toxic
Megacolon is
a. Ascending colon b. Descending colon
c. Transverse colon
d. Sigmoido-rectal area.
108. Operation of choice for Resectable
Cancer Rectum 4 cms above the anal
verge is
a. Anterior resection
b. abdomino – perineal resection
c. resection and anastomosis
d. Davis procedure
109. Barret’s esophagus are found in
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Following burns
c. Following head injury
d. In Typhoid, T.B, and amebiasis
110. Gastric ulcer occurs most commonly at
a. Fundus b. Body
c. Pyloric antrum d. Greater curvature
111. Couvelaire uterus is seen in
a. Placenta previa b. Vasa previa
c. Abruptio placenta d. all of these
112. Maternal syphilis is associated with
abortion at
a. Early first trimester b. Second trimester
c. IUD d. None of these
113. Physiological edema of pregnancy is
best treated with the following
a. crepe bandage b. Diuretics
c. Rest d. Salt restricted diet
114. Amniocentesis is indicated in all,
except
a. alpha fetoprotein study b. breech
c. chromosomal study d. Fetla maturity
115. Neutrophil examination can indicate
sex from
a. number of lobes
b. presence of drumstick
c. nature of granules
d. size of cell
116. Common cause for Decubitus ulcer in
prolapse uterus is
a. Infection b. Injury
c. Conjestion d. Malignancy
117. Myomectomy is done in a patient to
conserve
a. Reproductive function
b. Menstrual function
c. Feminity
d. none of these
118. Condom is used in the following,
except
a. Following vasectomy
b. Treatment of Vasectomy
c. immunological infertility
d. Asherman syndrome
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119. Ovulation inducing drugs include the
following except
a. Clomiphene citrate
b. Human menopausal gonadotropin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Progesterone
120. Diagnosis of Vesicular mole can be
made confidently by
a. clinical examination b. X ray
c. HCG levels d. Ultrasound
121. Which of the following anti-epileptic
drugs is used as alternative to Lithium
in Mania and bipolar disorder?
a. Phenytoin b. Ethosuximide
c. Carbamazepine d. Vigabatrin
122. Long term thiazide therapy causes
hyperglycemia by
a. reducing insulin release
b. interfering with glucose utilization in
tissues
c. increasing sympathetic activity
d. increasing corticosteroid secretion.
123. Drug of choice for radical cure of
P.vivax malaria is
a. Chloroquine b. Quinine
c. Primaquine d. Halofantrine
124. The rationale of giving beta blockers in
angina is that they
a. dilate coronary arteries
b. decrease the perload
c. decrease the work of the heart
d. increase the O2 consumption
125. Effects of the Glucocorticoids include
all of the following except
a. Altered fat deposition
b. Increased blood glucose
c. increased skin protein systhesis
d. Inhibition of Leukotriene synthesis
126. The side effect which limits the use of
oral iron therapy is
a.epigastric pain b. black stool
c. staining of teeth d. metallic taste
127. The agent that is effective against
Helicobacter pylori in peptic ulcer is
a. Bismuth b. Pirenzepine
c. Aluminium hydroxide d. amoxicillin
128. The anti-neoplastic drug used in
Psoriasis is
a. Mitotane b. Mechlorethamine
c. Melphalan d. Methotrexate
129. Thyrotoxicosis can be treated with
a. Glucocorticoids b. Methimazole
c. Propyl thiouracil d. All of these
130. The anti-emetic drug with least
extrapyramidal side effect is
a. Metoclopropamide b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine d. Domperidone
131. The main type of lipids found in tissues
in starving individual in the end of first
week of fasting is
a. Phospholipids b. Triacylglycerol
c. Cholesterol d. Cholesterol esters.
132. Which of the following lipoproteins
would contribute to a measurement of
plasma cholesterol in a normal
individual following a 12 hour fast?
a. Chylomicrons b. VLDL
c. Both VLDL & LDL d. LDL
133. Ketosis is ascribed in part to
a. a slowdown in fat metabolism
b. an over-production of acetyl CoA
c. an under production of acetyl CoA.
d. an over-production of glucose
134. Respiratory distress syndrome in
premature infants is due to the absence
of ….. in the lung.
a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin
b. Cephalin
c. Phosphatidyl inositol
d. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
135. The free fatty acids of blood are
a. metabolically inert
b. mainly bound to beta lipoprotein
c. stored in the fat deposits
d. mainly bound to serum albumin
136. The normal route of Calcium excretion is
a. kidney and liver
b. kidney and intestine
c. kidney, intestine and pancreas
d. kidney, liver and pancreas.
137. A rise in blood calcium may indicate
a. Paget’s disease b. vitamin D deficiency
c. Cushing’s disease d. Hypervitaminosis D
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138. Hypermagnesemisa is seen in
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Renal failure
c. Chronic infection d. Malabsorption
139. Specific gravity of the normal urine is
a. 1.010 – 1.100 b. 1.040 – 1.100
c. 1.150 – 1.250 d. 1.010 – 1.025
140. Prothrombin time in obstructive
jaundice
a. is normal
b. decreases
c. becomes normal after Vitamin K
injection
d. increases after Vitamin K injection
141. Hashimotos disease is
a. autoimmune disease of thyroid
b. excessive secretion of Adrenal cortex
c. disorder of motor system of brain
d. none of these
142. Plasma cortisol level is maximal
around
a. 8-9 pm b. 2-3 pm
c. 8am d. midnight
143. Cushing syndrome is caused by
a. hyposecretion of growth hormone
b. hyposecretion of thyroxine
c. hypersecretion of cortisol
d. hypersecretion of pituitary hormones.
144. Identify the wrong statement about
cortisol:
a. Secretion increased following injury
b. favours protein synthesis
c. enhances effects of antigen – antibody
reactions
d. tends to lower blood pressure.
145. Osmotic diuresis effect usually occurs
in the
a. glomerulus b. Distal tubule
c. Collecting duct d. Proximal tube
146. The following statements are true for
Gastrin except in
a. stimulates secretion of Hcl and
Pepsinogen
b. decreases gastric antral mobility
c. weakly stimulates gall bladder
contraction
d. increases resting pressure of lower
esophageal sphincter.
147. Commonest carcinoma in female is of
a. uterus b. cervix
c. breast d. ovary
148. A cholagogue
a. increases the rate of secretion of bile
b. increases the contraction of gall bladder
c. increases the storage of bile in G.B.
d. none of these
149. Blood group antigen is
a. carried by sex chromosomes
b. attached to plasma proteins
c. attached to hemoglobin molecule
d. found in saliva
150. All of the following cells arises from a
common committed stem cells except
a. Red blood cells b. Platelets
c. Granulocytes d. Lymphocytes
151. Hypochromic microcytic RBCs are a
feature of anemia due to
a. Iron deficiency b. B12 deficiency
c. Folate deficiency d. All of these
152. Myelofibrosis is diagnosed by
a. Bone marrow aspiration
b. Peripheral smear
c. Trephine biopsy
d. Bone marrow imprint.
153. The commonest type of leukemia
encountered in children is
a. A.L.L1 type b. C.L.L
c. C.M.L juvenile type d. C.M.M.L
154. Neutrophilia is a common
manifestation in the following
conditions except
a. Pyogenic infection
b. Typhoid fever
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
155. Among the following, the condition
which presents with diminished
reticulocyte count is
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Bloodless anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Lueco-erythroblastic reaction
156. Pigments derived from hemoglobin are
all,. Except
a. Bilirubin b. Hematin
c. Lipofuchsin d. Hemosiderin
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157. The presence and rapid multiplication
of pathogenic bacteria in blood is
a. Septicemia b. toxemia
c. Bacteremia d. all of these
158. The following are sites of Metastatic
Calcification, except
a. alveoli b. blood vessels
c. lymph nodes d. renal tubules
159. Which of the following transmits the
HIV most efficiently?
a. Semen b. Blood
c. Saliva d. Breast milk
160. The aetiologic agent implicated in the
production of Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma is
a. Ebstein – Barr virus
b. Oral Candidiasis
c. Herpes simplex Type II
d. Rhinosporidium seeberi.
161. At the time of curettage for suspected
endometrial carcinoma, the uterus is
perforated with a sound. The treatment
would be
a. Conservative
b. Immediate laparatomy and
hysterectomy
c. Laparoscopy and closure of perforation
d. Immediate chemotherapy
162. Hysterosalpingogram is useful in the
diagnosis of all the following
conditions, except
a. Cervical incompetence
b. Tuberculous endometritis
c. Ashermans syndrome
d. Scar integrity in previous LSLs.
163. The LH surge precedes ovulation by
a. 12 hours b. 24-36 hours
c. 48 hours d. 60-72 hours
164. Post – Caesarean pregnancy should be
a. delivered by repeat Caesarean section
b. should have a vaginal delivery
c. an institutional delivery
d. none of these
165. Primi gravida is seen in the first
trimester with primary pulmonary
hypertension. You will advise
a. Medical termination of pregnancy
b. Hospitalization
c. Outpatient treatment
d. angiography.
166. In a twin pregnancy Caesarean section
is indicated in
a. Abruptio placentae
b. Acute polyhydramnios
c. When first fetus presens as transverse
lie
d. all of these
167. If a woman C/O. Bleeding per vaginum
with history of two months
amenorrhea. One should think of
a. Threatened abortion
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Metropathia hemorrhagica
d. All of these
168. Red degeneration of Fibroid is
associated with
a. Pregnancy
b. Aseptic infarction
c. Thrombosis
d. Leukocytosis
169. Which of the following is not an
indication for Classical Caesarean?
a. Carcinoma cervix
b. Cervical fibroid
c. Vesicovaginal fistula repaired previously
d. Classical Caesarean previously
170. Danazol is useful in
a. Amennorhea
b. Infertility
c. endometriosis
d. Fibroadenoma breast
171. All are true of Parathion poisoning
except
a. decrease in true cholinesterase level
b. respiratory depression common
c. pupil constricted
d. opiates ideal for convulsions
172. Complications of Mitral Stenosis
include all , except
a. acute left ventricular failure
b. Pulmonary apoplexy
c. Pneumonia
d. Infective endocarditis.
173. In India, for Rheumatic fever all are
present, except
a. Syndenhams Chorea
b. Erythema marginatum
c. arthralgia
d. Raised C reactive protein.
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174. In Atrial fibrillation, all are true except
a. varying intensity of first heart sound
b. precipitation or aggravation of existing
CCF
c. Pulse deficit rarely
d. embolic manifestations.
175. All are features of Pulmonary
Hypertesnion, except
a. Early diastolic murmur
b. ejection click
c. Canon vein in jugulars
d. Prominent palpable pulmonary artery
pulsations over chest.
176. Coarctation of aorta is associated with
all, except
a. Hypertension in lower limbs
b. Turners syndrome
c. Bicuspid aortic valves
d. Polycystic kidney.
177. All are true of methyl alcohol
poisoning, except
a. occurs in groups of persons
b. toxic effects due to acetaldehyde
c. causes blurring of vision
d. treatment is with ethyl alcohol.
178. streptokinase therapy is contra –
indicated in all, except
a. allergic reaction
b. second dose within six months
c. recent injury
d. age above 50 years.
179. Pulmonary hypertension occurs in all ,
except
a. Ostium secundum septal effect
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Fallot’s tetralogy
d. Mitral incompetence
180. All are true of opening snap in Mitral
Stenosis, except
a. it is absent when valve is calcified
b. occurs before II sound
c. heard all over precordium
d. ringing quality.
181. Boerhoove’s syndrome is
a. partial thickness rupture of esophagus
b. full thickness rupture of esophagus
c. Rupture of esophageal varices
d. Rupture of gastro – esophageal
junction.
182. Common Goitre in Iodine Deficiency is
a. Simple colloid b. Single nodule
c. Multiple Nodule d. Malignant nodule.
183. Plasma Cortisol levels show Diurnal
variation with highest values
a. in the morning b. at bed time
c. in the evening d. at midnight
184. Which of the following Naevi becomes
malignant?
a. Blue Naevus
b. Hairy Naevus
c. Junctional Naevus
d. Intradermal Naevus
185. Metabolic acidosis occurs in
a. Diabetes b. Starvation
c. Renal insufficiency d. all of these
186. Amaurosis fugax is
a. Hemiplegia caused by embolus in
middle cerebral artery
b. Fleeting blindness due to embolus in
central retinal artery
c. Gangrene of intestines due to
thrombosis of mesenteric artery
d. Splenic infarction due to throbosis of
splenic artery.
187. Step walls are associated with the
transmission of
a. Amebiasis b. Ascariasis
c. Ancylostomiasis d. Dracunculosis
188. The toxic agent in Epidemic Dropsy is
a. BOAA b. Ergot alkaloids
c. Sanginarine d. None of these
189. Evolution of Rash in a chicken pox
case passes through the following four
stages. Identify the correct order in
which they appear.
a. Macule, Papule, Scab, Vesicle.
b. Papule, Macule, Vesicle, Scab.
c. Vesicle, Papule, Macule, Scab.
d. Macule, Papule, Vesicle, Scab.
190. The Odds ratio is used as measure of
association in a
a. Retrospective Cohort Study
b. Cohort Study
c. Prospective Cohort Study
d. Case Control Study
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191. Causes of Hypergonadotrophic
hypogonadism are following, except
a. Klinefelters syndrome
b. Turners syndrome
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Leprosy.
192. Following are true about Psoriasis,
except
a. Well defined erythematous plaques
b. Parakeratosis
c. Not associated with HLA CW6
d. Exacerbated by Propranolol.
193. Clinical features of raised Intracranial
pressure include all, except
a. Tachycardia b. Vomitting
c. Personality changes d. 6th Nerve palsy
194. Pulsus Paradox occurs in
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Bronchial Asthma
c. Pneumo-thorax
d. all of these
195. Turners syndrome is associated with
all the following, except
a. Karyotype of 45 XO
b. Genital hypoplasia
c. Blind vagina
d. Streak ovaries
196. The condition of waxy flexibility is
encountered during examination of
patients with
a. Alcoholic Hallucinosis b. Mania
c. Catatonic Schizophrenia
d. Alzheimers disease
197. In the following, mention the drug
which is not used in Erythematous
Nodosum Leprosum.
a. Steroids b. Chlorpromazine
c. Thalidomide d. Adriamycin
198. The key mediator in Scar formation are
following, except
a. T.F.G beta b. FGF
c. Macrophages d. Polymorphs
199. In renal transplantation, the dreaded
cause for graft loss is
a. Acute rejection
b. Vascular thrombosis of artery.
c. Vascular thrombosis of vein
d. Ansatomatic dehiscence
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Re: Last 10 years solved question papers of TNPSC Group II exam?


Dear sir/Madam
I request you to kindly send to 15years question paper &answer of the TNPSC group2 and 4 exam.Tamil & English my email id [email protected]

i want tnpsc group 2 previous questions and answers

I request you to kindly send the 10 years question paper & answer of the TNPSC group 2 exam. my mail id is [email protected]
Thanking you

hi,
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please send it in tamil. please help me ok.my id is [email protected]

Originally Posted by shipraja1

I want TNPSC Group-II All Question paper with answer key

hai! my name is m.gandhi i am completed mca in 2011.
your hel me please send me 10 years tnpsc group 2 model questions paper with answer

Originally Posted by shipraja1

I want TNPSC Group-II All Question paper with answer key

hai! my name is m.gandhi i am completed mca in 2011.
your hel me please send me 10 years tnpsc group 2 model questions paper with answer
my maid id: [email protected] plz. send me.