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AIIMS Nov 2010 Test Paper


ANATOMY

1. Which one of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal & greater wing of sphenoid bone?
A. Pterion
B. Lambda
C. Vertex
D. Inion.

1. Answer is: A- Pterion.
(Ref: B.D.Chaurasia- 3rd Vol- 3rd Ed/ pg 7). Repeat ALL INDIA PRE PG -06.

2. A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is termed as:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Symphysis
D. Suture.

2. Answer is: D- Suture.
(Ref: Gray’s Anatomy- 39th Ed/ pg 103).

PHYSIOLOGY

3. Lysis of fibrin is brought about by:
A. Plasmin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Collagenase
D. Coagulase

3. Answer is: A- Plasmin.
(Ref. K.D. Tripathi-5th Ed/ Pg 569)

4. Normal hemoglobin in adults is designated as:
A. Hb H
B. Hb S
C. Hb A
D. Hb F

4. Answer is: C- Hb A.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 497)

5. Which one of the following is true after exercise?
A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is an increase in systolic blood pressure.
B. Blood flow to muscle increases in 30 seconds.
C. Body temperature increases.

D. Lymphatic flow to the muscle decreases.

5. Answer is: C- Body temperature increases.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 588-90)

6. Which one of the following statements is true when a normal person lies down?
A. The heart rate settles above that of normal.
B. There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
C. Cerebral blood flow increases.
D. Blood flow to apex of the lung decreases.

6. Answer is: B- There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
(Ref: Ganong 18th / 587)

7. A complex factor mucopolysaccharide present in lung and liver that also prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Heparin.
B. Plasmin
C. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. Histamine.

7. Answer is: A- Heparin.
(Ref: K.D. Tripathi 5th / 561)

8. About Nitric oxide all of the following is true except:
A. It causes penile erection.
B. It acts via c-AMP.
C. It decreases the vasomotor tone.
D. It is present in cigarette smoke.

8. Answer is: B-It acts via cyclic-AMP.
(Ref: Harper 24th Ed / 699. KDT 5th Ed / 489)

BIOCHEMISTRY

9. Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids are present in all of the following except:
A. Mustard oil
B. Corn oil
C. Ground nut oil.
D. Fish oil.

9. Answer is: A-Mustard Oil.
(Ref: Park 16th / Page 407)

10. Iron is present in all of the following except:
A. Myoglobin.
B. Catalase.
C. Cytochrome.
D. Pyruvate kinase.

10. Answer is: D- Pyruvate kinase
(Ref: Park -11th Ed /Pg 449) Repeat AIPG-06

11. Enzyme that regulates the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde is:
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
C. Catalase.
D. Xanthene oxidase.

11. Answer is: A- Alcohol dehydrogenase.
(Ref. K.D.T. 5th / 351)

12. Which of the following enzyme at a pH of 8.6 has a function in bone mineralization and hydrolysis of phosphoric esters?
A. Acid phosphatase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Collagenase.
D. Hyaluronidase.

12. Answer is: B- Alkaline phosphatase.
(Ref. Harper 24th Ed / Page 680)

13. Amino acid residue used in detection of strength of Collagen:
A. Proline
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glycine
D. Hydroxyglycine.

13. Answer is: B- Hydroxyproline.
(Ref: Harper 24th / 669)

DENTAL MATERIALS

14. The angle between adhesive & adherent is zero degree. This indicates:
A. Rough surface between adhesive & adherent.
B. Presence of irregularities between the adherent surfaces.
C. Complete wetting of the surfaces.
D. Molecules of adhesive & adherent are at a tangent to each other.

14. Answer is: C- Complete wetting of surfaces
(Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 37, Phillips-10th Ed/Pg 2 Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

15. Which of the following is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
A. Has low creep.
B. Requires least amount of mercury.
C. Has tensile strength, both at 15 mins & 7 days comparable to high copper Unicompositional alloys.
D. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.

15. Answer is: D- Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
(Ref: Craig, Restorative dental materials-11th Ed/Pg 295-97) Repeat AIPG-06.

16. Which of the following is true regarding corrosion of Amalgam restoration?
A. It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
B. Decreases if tin content of alloy decreases.
C. Is promoted by gamma phase of alloy particles.
D. Is resisted most by cooper-tin phase in high copper amalgam.

16. Answer is: A- It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
(Ref: Craig-10th Ed/Pg 222; Sturdevant 4th/ Pg 154) Repeat AIPG-06.

17. Over-trituration of silver & mercury causes:
A. Reduction in contraction.
B. Increases strength in lathe cut but reduces strength in spherical alloy.
C. Gives a dull & crumbly amalgam mix.
D. Decreases the creep.

17. Answer is: B- Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.
(Ref: Craig 10th/226, 227) Repeat AIPG-06

18. Poisson’s ratio is:
A. Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
B. Equal to flexural strength.
C. Is more in amalgam.
D. Is low for gold alloy.

18. Answer is: A- Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
(Ref. Craig 10th Ed / 66, Skinner 11th Ed / 85)

19. Strain is:
A. New length upon original length after a load is applied.
B. Original length upon new length after a load is applied.
C. Force applied to change the length.
D. Difference between the two lengths upon original length.

19. Answer is: D- Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
(Ref: Skinner 11th / 73 & 74; Craig 10th / 66)

MICROBIOLOGY

20. Most commonly used selective medium for Streptococcus mutans is:
A. MacConkey’s medium.
B. Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar.
C. Nutrient agar.
D. Tellurite medium

20. Answer is: B- Mitis salivarius bacitracin agar.
(Ref: Soben Peter 2nd / 375) Repeat AIPG-06

PATHOLOGY

21. All of the following is true about Cerebral edema except:
A. Can result in herniation of the brain from foramen magnum.
B. Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
C. Results in an increase in intracranial pressure.
D. Can result from an increase in plasma protein concentration.

21. Answer is: B- Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811)

22. Apoptosis is suggestive of:
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive degeneration.
C. Neoangiogenesis.
D. Epithelial dysplasia.

22. Answer is: B- Liquefactive degeneration.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811) Repeat AIPG-06.

PHARMACOLOGY

23. Long term use of Aspirin causes:
A. Decreased platelet adhesion.
B. Decrease in fibrinogen formation.
C. Hypoprothrombinemia.
D. None of the above.

23. Answer is: C- Hypoprothrombinemia.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 172 &159)

24. Which of the following is true about Benzodiazepines?
A. In higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
B. Alters the sleep pattern to a great extent.
C. Stimulates hepatic metabolic enzymes.
D. All have metabolically active substrates.

24. Answer is: A- In Higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 361)

25. I.V. Diazepam in a patient on the dental chair can cause:
A. Tinel’s sign.
B. Verill’s sign.
C. Bell’s sign.
D. Corman’s sign

25. Answer is: B- Verill’s sign
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 650) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06

26. Drug that can result in hyperglycemia is:
A. Beta blockers.
B. ACE inhibitors.
C. Glucocorticoids.
D. NSAIDs.

26. Answer is: C-Glucocorticoids.
(Ref: KDT 5th Ed / Pg 256)

DENTAL HISTOLOGY

27. Type of Collagen found in principle fibres is:
A. Type-I.
B. Type-II.
C. Type-III.
D. Type-IV.

27. Answer is: A. Type I
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/Pg 37)

GENERAL MEDICINE

28. All of the following lead to severe adverse effects except:
A. Death.
B. Diabetes.
C. Prolonged hospitalization.
D. Immobility.

28. Answer is: B- Diabetes.
(Ref: Still searching….)

29. One of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient:
A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tranexamic acid.
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Palmitoic acid.

29. Answer is: B- Tranexamic acid
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 681) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

P.S.M & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

30. Regarding Case control, all of the following are true except:
A. Risk factors can be identified.
B. It can be used in the study of rare diseases.
C. It measures incidence.
D. It requires few subjects.

30. Answer is: C- It measures incidence
(Park- 18th / 68 table 13) Repeat AIPG-06.

31. Break point chlorination indicates:
A. Start of chlorination process.
B. End of chlorination process.
C. Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
D. Point after partial saturation of water with chlorine.

31. Answer is: C- Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
(Ref: Soben P- 2nd / 778) Repeat AIPG-06.

32. Square root of pq/n indicates:
A. Standard error of mean.
B. Standard error of difference in means.
C. Standard error of proportion.
D. Standard error of difference in proportions.

32. Answer is: C- Standard error of proportions.
(Ref: Park-18th /649) Repeat AIPG-06.

33. True regarding Randomized Controlled Trial:
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar.
B. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding.
C. Help ensure that study subjects are a part of the general population.
D. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.

33. Answer is: D- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
(Ref: Park 18th / 76) Repeat AIPG-06.

34. All of the following is true regarding informed consent except:
A. Patient must be informed about alternative procedures & their benefits.
B. Risk factors involved in the procedure must be explained.
C. Benefits of treatment likely to result must be highlighted.
D. Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.

34. Answer is: D- Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 773)

35. Good clinical practice is not essential in:
A. Preclinical studies.
B. Phase-I studies.
C. Phase-II studies.
D. Phase-IV studies.

35. Answer is: A- Preclinical studies.


36. Number of teeth used in modified PHP index is:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

36. Answer is: A- 6.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 135-36)

ORAL PATHOLOGY

37. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterised by:
A. Acanthosis.
B. Auspitz sign
C. Acantholysis.
D. Wickham’s striae.

37. Answer is: C- Acantholysis
(Ref: Shafer 5th /1128) Repeat AIPG-06.

38. One of the following is an oral precancerous lesion:
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
B. Hairy B-cell leukemia.
C. White sponge nevus.
D. Speckled leukoplakia.

38. Answer is: D- Speckled leukoplakia
(Ref: Burket- 10th / Pg 102) Repeat AIPG-06.

39. Important organism causing dentinal caries is:
A. Streptococcus mutans.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Borrelia vincenti.
D. Actinomyces actinobacillus.

39. Answer is: A- Streptococcus mutans.
(Ref: Shafer 5th /575) Repeat AIPG-06.

40. In taurodontism affected teeth exhibit:
A. Elongated large pulp chambers, short roots
B. Elongated small pulp chambers, short roots.
C. Elongated large pulp chambers, large roots.
D. Elongated small pulp chambers, large roots.

40. Answer is: A- Elongated large pulp chambers and short roots.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 60) Repeat AIPG-06.

41. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:
A. Premolars
B. Lateral incisors.
C. Paramolars
D. Maxillary canines.

41. Answer is: B- Lateral incisors
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 57) Repeat AIPG-06.

42. A tumor of oral cavity represented as T3N2M0 is classified as:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

42. Answer is: D- Stage IV
(Ref: Harrison-16th /505)

43. Blanching of the oral mucosa is associated with:
A. Scleroderma.
B. Riboflavin deficiency
C. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
D. Thiamine deficiency.

43. Answer is: C- Oral submucous fibrosis.

(Ref. Shafer’s 5th Ed/ 136, 4th Ed/ 109)

44. Rigidity of the oral mucosa is seen with:
A. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
C. Healed lesions of aphthous stomatitis.
D. None of the above.

44. Answer is: A- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref: Above answer & Pathology of head and neck tumors- Leon Barnes.)

45. Bilateral spongy folded mucosa is seen in:
A. Candidiasis.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Aspirin burns.
D. Leukoplakia.

45. Answer is: B- White sponge nevus
(Ref: Shafer/ 4th- 825)

46. White patch on the buccal mucosa which disappears on stretching is:
A. Leukoplakia.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Scleroderma.
D. Leucoedema.

46. Answer is: D- Leucoedema.
(Ref: Burket/ 10th- 86)

47. Most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:
A. Between maxillary premolars.
B. Mandibular third molar area.
C. Maxillary tuberosity area.
D. Between mandibular cuspid & premolar.

47. Answer is: D- Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 372) Repeat AIPG-06.

48. In leukemic patient bleeding does not stop because of:
A. Decreased platelet count.
B. Increased WBC count.
C. Increased calcium levels.
D. Decrease in coagulation factor levels.

48. Answer is: A- Decreased platelet count.
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/ Pg 216) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

49. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels are seen with:
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Hypophosphatasia.
C. Cherubism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.

49. Answer is: A- Paget’s disease.
(Ref: Shafer/ 5th -1001)

50. In lead poisoning gingival discoloration presents as:
A. Blue-black line.
B. Yellow line.
C. Grayish black line.
D. Steel gray line.

50. Answer is: A- Blue black/ C- Grayish black line/ D- Steel gray
(Ref: Carranza 9th /223; Shafer 5th Ed/774; Burket 8th/ 302)

51. Dilaceration occurs due to:
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
B. Abnormal displacement of the tooth germ during root development.
C. Abnormal displacement of enamel epithelium during tooth development.
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth development.

51. Answer is: A- Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
(Ref: Shafer -5th Ed/ 56) Repeat AIPG-06

52. Which of the following is true about Xerostomia?
A. pH of saliva increases.
B. pH of saliva decreases.
C. pH of saliva increases in morning & decreases in evening.
D. pH of saliva remains unchanged.

52. Answer is: B- pH of saliva decreases. (Most probably)
(Ref: Shafer 4th/33-34, Burket-10th /222).

53. Diagnosis of Periapical Cemental Dysplasia is done by:
A. Vitality tests.
B. Radiographs.
C. Percussion.
D. Examination of the lamina dura.

53. Answer is: A- Vitality tests (Most probably)
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 495)

54. Toluidene blue stain is used to distinguish between:
A. Pemphigus & lichen planus.
B. Leukoplakia & lichen planus.
C. Detection of malignant transformation.
D. Candidiasis & leukoplakia.

54. Answer is: C- Detection of malignant transformation.
(Ref: Burket- 10th / 106)



ORAL RADIOLOGY

55. Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
D. Keratocyst

55. Answer is: C- Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
(Ref: Shafers 5th / 392) Repeat AIPG-06.

56. Disadvantage of a grid is:
A. Increases exposure time.
B. Decreases clarity.
C. Causes blurring of image.
D. More skin dose.

56. Answer is: A- Increases exposure time.
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 85) AIIMS-NOV-05

57. Consistent radiographs are maintained by:
A. Constant mA & kVp.
B. Automatic processing.
C. Using long cone technique
D. Fixed processing time.

57. Answer is: B- Automated processing. (My guess)
(Ref: White & Pharoah 5th / 103)

58. Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Dark areas on a radiograph.
B. Range of densities on a radiograph.
C. Overall darkening of the radiograph.
D. Light areas on the radiographs.

58. Answer is: B- Range of densities on a radiograph.
(Ref: White & Pharoah -5th / 392)

59. True about parallax technique:
A. Increases image clarity
B. Decreases distortion of the image.
C. Gives relative image of object.
D. Decreases image clarity.

59. Answer is: D- Decreases image clarity.
(Ref: White & Pharoah- 5th / 83) AIIMS-NOV-05

ORAL SURGERY

60. Most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars is:
A. Referred pain.
B. Recurrent pericoronitis.
C. Chronic periodontal disease.
D. Orthodontic treatment.

60. Answer is: B- Recurrent Pericoronitis.
(Ref: Shafer- 5th/86) Repeat AIPG-06.

61. Which of the following is the correct reason for facial nerve injury during forcep extraction?
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B. The parotid glands is in developing stage
C. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve
D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia.

61. Answer is: A- The mastoid process is absent at birth
(Ref: Dutta- Obs and Gynec.- 5th Ed/ 591) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

62. Incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in following cases:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy.
B. Leukaemic patients.
C. Patients on hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D. Xerostomia

62. Answer is: A- Extraction following radiotherapy.
(Ref. Neelima Malik :1st Ed/616-621)

63. Syncope results from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia
D. Cerebral degeneration

63. Answer is: C- Cerebral hypoxia
(Ref. Davidson’s- 18th Ed. / 225, Ref. Monheims- 7th Ed. / 238) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.


PERIODONTOLOGY

64. A papilla preservation flap is indicated in:
A. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
B. Infrabony defects.
C. Crater type bony defect.
D. One walled defect.

64. Answer is: A- Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ 723) Repeat AIPG-06.

65. A procedure done to eliminate periodontal pocket & increase the width of attached gingiva is termed as:
A. Laterally displaced flap.
B. Apically displaced flap.
C. Papilla preservation flap.
D. Modified Widman flap.

65. Answer is: B- Apically displaced flap.
(Ref: Above question & chart)

66. Role of barrier membrane in GTR is:
A. To help overall healing.
B. Prevention of epithelial migration.
C. Arrest of bleeding.
D. Prevent the infection from reaching the underlying tissues.

66. Answer is: B- Prevention of epithelial migration
(Ref: Carranza 9th/809) Repeat AIPG-06

67. Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as:
A. Enamel.
B. Dental plaque.
C. Saliva.
D. Dentinal caries.

67. Answer is: B- Dental Plaque
(Ref: Carranza 9th/97) Repeat AIPG-06.

68. Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. Refractory periodontitis.
D. Juvenille periodontitis.

68. Answer is: C- Refractory periodontitis.
(Ref: Carranza 10th/ 243)

69. Peripheral buttressing bone formation effect is termed as:
A. Ledges.
B. Craters.
C. Hemiseptum.
D. Lipping.

69. Answer is: D- Lipping.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ Pg 362,365-66)

PROSTHODONTICS

70. Modification in Kennedy’s classification is:
A. Number of spaces present anterior to the remaining teeth.
B. Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
C. Edentulous spaces posterior to all the teeth.
D. Additional spaces in class-IV.

70. Answer is: B- Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
(Ref. McCracken’s removable partial denture: 11th Ed/pg 22)


71. One of the following is true about a pier abutment:
A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth.
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth.
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
D. A periodontally weak abutment.

71. Answer is: C- Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
(Ref. Nallaswamy 1st Ed/ pg 550)


72. The correct placement of an indirect retainer is:
A. Near the fulcrum line.
B. Away from the fulcrum line.
C. Near the direct retainer.
D. Near the edentulous area.

72. Answer is: B- Away from the fulcrum line.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 156)

73. Lingual bar is: (size & shape)
A. 6 gauge, pear shaped.
B. 4 gauge, pear shaped.
C. 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
D. 4 gauge, half pear shaped.

73. Answer is: C- 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 39)

74. Correct indication for a lingual plate is:
A. When the lingual sulcus is deep.
B. When the ridge is not strong enough to support the teeth.
C. When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
D. Any of the above can be an indication.

74. Answer is: C- When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 42, 61)

75. Disadvantage of a flexible major connector is:
A. Causes other components of the RPD to become more effective.
B. Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
C. Decreased retention.
D. -----------

75. Answer is: B- Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 35-36)

OPERATIVE DENTISTRY

76. Permeability of dentin does not depend upon:
A. Smear layer.
B. Diffusion co-efficient of fluid.
C. Convection of fluid
D. Length of dentinal tubules.

76. Answer is: Still searching

77. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on a radiograph by:
A. Visible light.
B. Ultrasonic light.
C. Fibre optic trans-illumination.
D. Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.

77. Answer is: D- Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
(Ref. Damle 3rd Ed/ 51, Internet references) Repeat AIPG-06.

78. Resistance form is that shape of a cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration.
B. Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
C. Prevents displacement of restoration & Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
D. Allows for adequate instrumentation.

78. Answer is: B- Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
(Ref. Sturdevant’s: 4th Ed/pg 290)

79. Pin used in pin retained restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is:
A. Cemented.
B. Friction locked.
C. Self threaded.
D. Any of the above.

79. Answer is: A- Cemented pin
(Ref: Sturdevant- 2nd Ed. / Page. 373.) Repeat AIPG-06.

ENDODONTICS

80. Sterilization of Gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry heat.

80. Answer is: C- Chemical solutions.
(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 140) Repeat AIPG-06.

81. Difference between physical characteristics of a file & reamer is:
A. The cross-section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section.
B. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
C. The reamers have more flutes in the blade.
D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design.

81. Answer is: B- The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
(Ref. Grossman 11th Ed/ 195) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

ORTHODONTICS

82. A dentist performed restorative procedure in an 11 year old child and found that the primary molars were in various stages of exfoliation with slight anterior crowding present. His next appointment should be:
A. After three months for observation
B. After six months for recall checkup
C. After one year
D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt

82. Answer is: A- After three months for observation
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.16, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-07.

83. Rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:
A. Correction of crown root position
B. Increasing the strength of wire
C. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency
D. Used for correction of anterior crowding

83. Answer is: A- Correction of crown root position
(Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 343) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

84. A buccal coil spring is used to regain space between 1st premolar & 1st molar. The most common post treatment complication is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate

84. Answer is: D- Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.26, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

85. Arch space for the eruption of 3rd molars is created by:
A. Apposition of alveolar process
B. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
C. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
D. Apposition of lower body of mandible.

85. Answer is: C- Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
(Ref. Bhalajhi 3rd Ed/ Pg 33) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

86. ANB angle of 2? indicates:
A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors

86. Answer is: A- A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base.
(Ref: Bhalajhi- 3rd Ed/ 154, National boards series-Q. no.23, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

87. When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on patient’s speech will be:
A. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days.
B. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks.
C. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
D. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks.

87. Answer is: C- Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.24, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

PEDODONTICS

88. Pulse oxymetry is used for the determination of:
A. Rate of blood flow.
B. Oxygen saturation.
C. Blood volume.
D. Blood coefficient.

88. Answer is: B- Oxygen saturation
(Ref. Shobha Tandon 1st Ed/ Pg 338) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

89. A non-invasive method to measure the blood flow is:
A. Electric pulp testing.
B. Percussion.
C. Laser Doppler flowmetry.
D. Radiographic visualization.

89. Answer is: C- Laser Doppler flowmetry
(Ref. Shobha Tandon, 1st Ed/ 332) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

90. First to advocate distal shoe in 1929:
A. Wilson.
B. William.
C. Willet.
D. Roche.

90. Answer is: C- Willet.
(Ref: AIIMS-MAY-06, Q-86)

AIIMS Nov 2010 Test Paper


ANATOMY

1. Which one of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal & greater wing of sphenoid bone?
A. Pterion
B. Lambda
C. Vertex
D. Inion.

1. Answer is: A- Pterion.
(Ref: B.D.Chaurasia- 3rd Vol- 3rd Ed/ pg 7). Repeat ALL INDIA PRE PG -06.

2. A non-synovial joint with dense connective tissue between two bony surfaces is termed as:
A. Synchondrosis
B. Syndesmosis
C. Symphysis
D. Suture.

2. Answer is: D- Suture.
(Ref: Gray’s Anatomy- 39th Ed/ pg 103).

PHYSIOLOGY

3. Lysis of fibrin is brought about by:
A. Plasmin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Collagenase
D. Coagulase

3. Answer is: A- Plasmin.
(Ref. K.D. Tripathi-5th Ed/ Pg 569)

4. Normal hemoglobin in adults is designated as:
A. Hb H
B. Hb S
C. Hb A
D. Hb F

4. Answer is: C- Hb A.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 497)

5. Which one of the following is true after exercise?
A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is an increase in systolic blood pressure.
B. Blood flow to muscle increases in 30 seconds.
C. Body temperature increases.

D. Lymphatic flow to the muscle decreases.

5. Answer is: C- Body temperature increases.
(Ref: Ganong 18th Ed / 588-90)

6. Which one of the following statements is true when a normal person lies down?
A. The heart rate settles above that of normal.
B. There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
C. Cerebral blood flow increases.
D. Blood flow to apex of the lung decreases.

6. Answer is: B- There is an immediate increase in the venous return.
(Ref: Ganong 18th / 587)

7. A complex factor mucopolysaccharide present in lung and liver that also prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Heparin.
B. Plasmin
C. Acetylsalicylic acid.
D. Histamine.

7. Answer is: A- Heparin.
(Ref: K.D. Tripathi 5th / 561)

8. About Nitric oxide all of the following is true except:
A. It causes penile erection.
B. It acts via c-AMP.
C. It decreases the vasomotor tone.
D. It is present in cigarette smoke.

8. Answer is: B-It acts via cyclic-AMP.
(Ref: Harper 24th Ed / 699. KDT 5th Ed / 489)

BIOCHEMISTRY

9. Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids are present in all of the following except:
A. Mustard oil
B. Corn oil
C. Ground nut oil.
D. Fish oil.

9. Answer is: A-Mustard Oil.
(Ref: Park 16th / Page 407)

10. Iron is present in all of the following except:
A. Myoglobin.
B. Catalase.
C. Cytochrome.
D. Pyruvate kinase.

10. Answer is: D- Pyruvate kinase
(Ref: Park -11th Ed /Pg 449) Repeat AIPG-06

11. Enzyme that regulates the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde is:
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
C. Catalase.
D. Xanthene oxidase.

11. Answer is: A- Alcohol dehydrogenase.
(Ref. K.D.T. 5th / 351)

12. Which of the following enzyme at a pH of 8.6 has a function in bone mineralization and hydrolysis of phosphoric esters?
A. Acid phosphatase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Collagenase.
D. Hyaluronidase.

12. Answer is: B- Alkaline phosphatase.
(Ref. Harper 24th Ed / Page 680)

13. Amino acid residue used in detection of strength of Collagen:
A. Proline
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Glycine
D. Hydroxyglycine.

13. Answer is: B- Hydroxyproline.
(Ref: Harper 24th / 669)

DENTAL MATERIALS

14. The angle between adhesive & adherent is zero degree. This indicates:
A. Rough surface between adhesive & adherent.
B. Presence of irregularities between the adherent surfaces.
C. Complete wetting of the surfaces.
D. Molecules of adhesive & adherent are at a tangent to each other.

14. Answer is: C- Complete wetting of surfaces
(Ref: Phillips-11th Ed/Pg 37, Phillips-10th Ed/Pg 2 Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

15. Which of the following is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
A. Has low creep.
B. Requires least amount of mercury.
C. Has tensile strength, both at 15 mins & 7 days comparable to high copper Unicompositional alloys.
D. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.

15. Answer is: D- Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hour.
(Ref: Craig, Restorative dental materials-11th Ed/Pg 295-97) Repeat AIPG-06.

16. Which of the following is true regarding corrosion of Amalgam restoration?
A. It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
B. Decreases if tin content of alloy decreases.
C. Is promoted by gamma phase of alloy particles.
D. Is resisted most by cooper-tin phase in high copper amalgam.

16. Answer is: A- It can extend upto a depth of 100-500 microns.
(Ref: Craig-10th Ed/Pg 222; Sturdevant 4th/ Pg 154) Repeat AIPG-06.

17. Over-trituration of silver & mercury causes:
A. Reduction in contraction.
B. Increases strength in lathe cut but reduces strength in spherical alloy.
C. Gives a dull & crumbly amalgam mix.
D. Decreases the creep.

17. Answer is: B- Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.
(Ref: Craig 10th/226, 227) Repeat AIPG-06

18. Poisson’s ratio is:
A. Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
B. Equal to flexural strength.
C. Is more in amalgam.
D. Is low for gold alloy.

18. Answer is: A- Lateral strain by axial strain within elastic limit.
(Ref. Craig 10th Ed / 66, Skinner 11th Ed / 85)

19. Strain is:
A. New length upon original length after a load is applied.
B. Original length upon new length after a load is applied.
C. Force applied to change the length.
D. Difference between the two lengths upon original length.

19. Answer is: D- Difference between the two lengths upon original length.
(Ref: Skinner 11th / 73 & 74; Craig 10th / 66)

MICROBIOLOGY

20. Most commonly used selective medium for Streptococcus mutans is:
A. MacConkey’s medium.
B. Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar.
C. Nutrient agar.
D. Tellurite medium

20. Answer is: B- Mitis salivarius bacitracin agar.
(Ref: Soben Peter 2nd / 375) Repeat AIPG-06

PATHOLOGY

21. All of the following is true about Cerebral edema except:
A. Can result in herniation of the brain from foramen magnum.
B. Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
C. Results in an increase in intracranial pressure.
D. Can result from an increase in plasma protein concentration.

21. Answer is: B- Results from increased lymphatic drainage.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811)

22. Apoptosis is suggestive of:
A. Coagulative necrosis.
B. Liquefactive degeneration.
C. Neoangiogenesis.
D. Epithelial dysplasia.

22. Answer is: B- Liquefactive degeneration.
(Ref: Kumar-Cotran-Robbin’s-7th Ed/ Pg 811) Repeat AIPG-06.

PHARMACOLOGY

23. Long term use of Aspirin causes:
A. Decreased platelet adhesion.
B. Decrease in fibrinogen formation.
C. Hypoprothrombinemia.
D. None of the above.

23. Answer is: C- Hypoprothrombinemia.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 172 &159)

24. Which of the following is true about Benzodiazepines?
A. In higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
B. Alters the sleep pattern to a great extent.
C. Stimulates hepatic metabolic enzymes.
D. All have metabolically active substrates.

24. Answer is: A- In Higher quantities, it is relatively safer than other hypnotics.
(Ref: K.D.T. 5th / 361)

25. I.V. Diazepam in a patient on the dental chair can cause:
A. Tinel’s sign.
B. Verill’s sign.
C. Bell’s sign.
D. Corman’s sign

25. Answer is: B- Verill’s sign
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 650) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06

26. Drug that can result in hyperglycemia is:
A. Beta blockers.
B. ACE inhibitors.
C. Glucocorticoids.
D. NSAIDs.

26. Answer is: C-Glucocorticoids.
(Ref: KDT 5th Ed / Pg 256)

DENTAL HISTOLOGY

27. Type of Collagen found in principle fibres is:
A. Type-I.
B. Type-II.
C. Type-III.
D. Type-IV.

27. Answer is: A. Type I
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/Pg 37)

GENERAL MEDICINE

28. All of the following lead to severe adverse effects except:
A. Death.
B. Diabetes.
C. Prolonged hospitalization.
D. Immobility.

28. Answer is: B- Diabetes.
(Ref: Still searching….)

29. One of the following can be used in the management of a hemophilic patient:
A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tranexamic acid.
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Palmitoic acid.

29. Answer is: B- Tranexamic acid
(Ref. Neelima Malik 1st Ed. / 681) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

P.S.M & COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

30. Regarding Case control, all of the following are true except:
A. Risk factors can be identified.
B. It can be used in the study of rare diseases.
C. It measures incidence.
D. It requires few subjects.

30. Answer is: C- It measures incidence
(Park- 18th / 68 table 13) Repeat AIPG-06.

31. Break point chlorination indicates:
A. Start of chlorination process.
B. End of chlorination process.
C. Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
D. Point after partial saturation of water with chlorine.

31. Answer is: C- Point where free residual chlorine starts appearing.
(Ref: Soben P- 2nd / 778) Repeat AIPG-06.

32. Square root of pq/n indicates:
A. Standard error of mean.
B. Standard error of difference in means.
C. Standard error of proportion.
D. Standard error of difference in proportions.

32. Answer is: C- Standard error of proportions.
(Ref: Park-18th /649) Repeat AIPG-06.

33. True regarding Randomized Controlled Trial:
A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar.
B. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding.
C. Help ensure that study subjects are a part of the general population.
D. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.

33. Answer is: D- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
(Ref: Park 18th / 76) Repeat AIPG-06.

34. All of the following is true regarding informed consent except:
A. Patient must be informed about alternative procedures & their benefits.
B. Risk factors involved in the procedure must be explained.
C. Benefits of treatment likely to result must be highlighted.
D. Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.

34. Answer is: D- Concealment of procedures which are beneficial may be done knowingly.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 773)

35. Good clinical practice is not essential in:
A. Preclinical studies.
B. Phase-I studies.
C. Phase-II studies.
D. Phase-IV studies.

35. Answer is: A- Preclinical studies.


36. Number of teeth used in modified PHP index is:
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

36. Answer is: A- 6.
(Ref: Soben Peter 3rd / 135-36)

ORAL PATHOLOGY

37. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterised by:
A. Acanthosis.
B. Auspitz sign
C. Acantholysis.
D. Wickham’s striae.

37. Answer is: C- Acantholysis
(Ref: Shafer 5th /1128) Repeat AIPG-06.

38. One of the following is an oral precancerous lesion:
A. Oral hairy leukoplakia.
B. Hairy B-cell leukemia.
C. White sponge nevus.
D. Speckled leukoplakia.

38. Answer is: D- Speckled leukoplakia
(Ref: Burket- 10th / Pg 102) Repeat AIPG-06.

39. Important organism causing dentinal caries is:
A. Streptococcus mutans.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Borrelia vincenti.
D. Actinomyces actinobacillus.

39. Answer is: A- Streptococcus mutans.
(Ref: Shafer 5th /575) Repeat AIPG-06.

40. In taurodontism affected teeth exhibit:
A. Elongated large pulp chambers, short roots
B. Elongated small pulp chambers, short roots.
C. Elongated large pulp chambers, large roots.
D. Elongated small pulp chambers, large roots.

40. Answer is: A- Elongated large pulp chambers and short roots.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 60) Repeat AIPG-06.

41. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:
A. Premolars
B. Lateral incisors.
C. Paramolars
D. Maxillary canines.

41. Answer is: B- Lateral incisors
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 57) Repeat AIPG-06.

42. A tumor of oral cavity represented as T3N2M0 is classified as:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

42. Answer is: D- Stage IV
(Ref: Harrison-16th /505)

43. Blanching of the oral mucosa is associated with:
A. Scleroderma.
B. Riboflavin deficiency
C. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
D. Thiamine deficiency.

43. Answer is: C- Oral submucous fibrosis.

(Ref. Shafer’s 5th Ed/ 136, 4th Ed/ 109)

44. Rigidity of the oral mucosa is seen with:
A. Oral sub mucous fibrosis.
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
C. Healed lesions of aphthous stomatitis.
D. None of the above.

44. Answer is: A- Oral submucous fibrosis.
(Ref: Above answer & Pathology of head and neck tumors- Leon Barnes.)

45. Bilateral spongy folded mucosa is seen in:
A. Candidiasis.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Aspirin burns.
D. Leukoplakia.

45. Answer is: B- White sponge nevus
(Ref: Shafer/ 4th- 825)

46. White patch on the buccal mucosa which disappears on stretching is:
A. Leukoplakia.
B. White sponge nevus.
C. Scleroderma.
D. Leucoedema.

46. Answer is: D- Leucoedema.
(Ref: Burket/ 10th- 86)

47. Most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is:
A. Between maxillary premolars.
B. Mandibular third molar area.
C. Maxillary tuberosity area.
D. Between mandibular cuspid & premolar.

47. Answer is: D- Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
(Ref: Shafer 5th / 372) Repeat AIPG-06.

48. In leukemic patient bleeding does not stop because of:
A. Decreased platelet count.
B. Increased WBC count.
C. Increased calcium levels.
D. Decrease in coagulation factor levels.

48. Answer is: A- Decreased platelet count.
(Ref: Carranza -9th Ed/ Pg 216) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

49. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels are seen with:
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Hypophosphatasia.
C. Cherubism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.

49. Answer is: A- Paget’s disease.
(Ref: Shafer/ 5th -1001)

50. In lead poisoning gingival discoloration presents as:
A. Blue-black line.
B. Yellow line.
C. Grayish black line.
D. Steel gray line.

50. Answer is: A- Blue black/ C- Grayish black line/ D- Steel gray
(Ref: Carranza 9th /223; Shafer 5th Ed/774; Burket 8th/ 302)

51. Dilaceration occurs due to:
A. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
B. Abnormal displacement of the tooth germ during root development.
C. Abnormal displacement of enamel epithelium during tooth development.
D. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth development.

51. Answer is: A- Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.
(Ref: Shafer -5th Ed/ 56) Repeat AIPG-06

52. Which of the following is true about Xerostomia?
A. pH of saliva increases.
B. pH of saliva decreases.
C. pH of saliva increases in morning & decreases in evening.
D. pH of saliva remains unchanged.

52. Answer is: B- pH of saliva decreases. (Most probably)
(Ref: Shafer 4th/33-34, Burket-10th /222).

53. Diagnosis of Periapical Cemental Dysplasia is done by:
A. Vitality tests.
B. Radiographs.
C. Percussion.
D. Examination of the lamina dura.

53. Answer is: A- Vitality tests (Most probably)
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 495)

54. Toluidene blue stain is used to distinguish between:
A. Pemphigus & lichen planus.
B. Leukoplakia & lichen planus.
C. Detection of malignant transformation.
D. Candidiasis & leukoplakia.

54. Answer is: C- Detection of malignant transformation.
(Ref: Burket- 10th / 106)



ORAL RADIOLOGY

55. Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
D. Keratocyst

55. Answer is: C- Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
(Ref: Shafers 5th / 392) Repeat AIPG-06.

56. Disadvantage of a grid is:
A. Increases exposure time.
B. Decreases clarity.
C. Causes blurring of image.
D. More skin dose.

56. Answer is: A- Increases exposure time.
(Ref: White and Pharoah -5th / 85) AIIMS-NOV-05

57. Consistent radiographs are maintained by:
A. Constant mA & kVp.
B. Automatic processing.
C. Using long cone technique
D. Fixed processing time.

57. Answer is: B- Automated processing. (My guess)
(Ref: White & Pharoah 5th / 103)

58. Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Dark areas on a radiograph.
B. Range of densities on a radiograph.
C. Overall darkening of the radiograph.
D. Light areas on the radiographs.

58. Answer is: B- Range of densities on a radiograph.
(Ref: White & Pharoah -5th / 392)

59. True about parallax technique:
A. Increases image clarity
B. Decreases distortion of the image.
C. Gives relative image of object.
D. Decreases image clarity.

59. Answer is: D- Decreases image clarity.
(Ref: White & Pharoah- 5th / 83) AIIMS-NOV-05

ORAL SURGERY

60. Most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars is:
A. Referred pain.
B. Recurrent pericoronitis.
C. Chronic periodontal disease.
D. Orthodontic treatment.

60. Answer is: B- Recurrent Pericoronitis.
(Ref: Shafer- 5th/86) Repeat AIPG-06.

61. Which of the following is the correct reason for facial nerve injury during forcep extraction?
A. The mastoid process is absent at birth
B. The parotid glands is in developing stage
C. The beak of the forceps engages the main trunk of facial nerve
D. The sublingual hematoma during delivery causes neuropraxia.

61. Answer is: A- The mastoid process is absent at birth
(Ref: Dutta- Obs and Gynec.- 5th Ed/ 591) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

62. Incidence of osteoradionecrosis is increased in following cases:
A. Extraction following radiotherapy.
B. Leukaemic patients.
C. Patients on hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D. Xerostomia

62. Answer is: A- Extraction following radiotherapy.
(Ref. Neelima Malik :1st Ed/616-621)

63. Syncope results from:
A. Cerebral edema
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia
D. Cerebral degeneration

63. Answer is: C- Cerebral hypoxia
(Ref. Davidson’s- 18th Ed. / 225, Ref. Monheims- 7th Ed. / 238) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.


PERIODONTOLOGY

64. A papilla preservation flap is indicated in:
A. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
B. Infrabony defects.
C. Crater type bony defect.
D. One walled defect.

64. Answer is: A- Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ 723) Repeat AIPG-06.

65. A procedure done to eliminate periodontal pocket & increase the width of attached gingiva is termed as:
A. Laterally displaced flap.
B. Apically displaced flap.
C. Papilla preservation flap.
D. Modified Widman flap.

65. Answer is: B- Apically displaced flap.
(Ref: Above question & chart)

66. Role of barrier membrane in GTR is:
A. To help overall healing.
B. Prevention of epithelial migration.
C. Arrest of bleeding.
D. Prevent the infection from reaching the underlying tissues.

66. Answer is: B- Prevention of epithelial migration
(Ref: Carranza 9th/809) Repeat AIPG-06

67. Biofilm found on tooth surface is termed as:
A. Enamel.
B. Dental plaque.
C. Saliva.
D. Dentinal caries.

67. Answer is: B- Dental Plaque
(Ref: Carranza 9th/97) Repeat AIPG-06.

68. Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis.
B. Chronic periodontitis.
C. Refractory periodontitis.
D. Juvenille periodontitis.

68. Answer is: C- Refractory periodontitis.
(Ref: Carranza 10th/ 243)

69. Peripheral buttressing bone formation effect is termed as:
A. Ledges.
B. Craters.
C. Hemiseptum.
D. Lipping.

69. Answer is: D- Lipping.
(Ref: Carranza 9th/ Pg 362,365-66)

PROSTHODONTICS

70. Modification in Kennedy’s classification is:
A. Number of spaces present anterior to the remaining teeth.
B. Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
C. Edentulous spaces posterior to all the teeth.
D. Additional spaces in class-IV.

70. Answer is: B- Number of spaces present after the basic classification.
(Ref. McCracken’s removable partial denture: 11th Ed/pg 22)


71. One of the following is true about a pier abutment:
A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth.
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth.
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
D. A periodontally weak abutment.

71. Answer is: C- Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the abutment tooth.
(Ref. Nallaswamy 1st Ed/ pg 550)


72. The correct placement of an indirect retainer is:
A. Near the fulcrum line.
B. Away from the fulcrum line.
C. Near the direct retainer.
D. Near the edentulous area.

72. Answer is: B- Away from the fulcrum line.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 156)

73. Lingual bar is: (size & shape)
A. 6 gauge, pear shaped.
B. 4 gauge, pear shaped.
C. 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
D. 4 gauge, half pear shaped.

73. Answer is: C- 6 gauge, half pear shaped.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 39)

74. Correct indication for a lingual plate is:
A. When the lingual sulcus is deep.
B. When the ridge is not strong enough to support the teeth.
C. When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
D. Any of the above can be an indication.

74. Answer is: C- When more number of anterior teeth are involved.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 42, 61)

75. Disadvantage of a flexible major connector is:
A. Causes other components of the RPD to become more effective.
B. Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
C. Decreased retention.
D. -----------

75. Answer is: B- Causes overload & periodontal destruction of the abutment teeth.
(Ref. McCracken’s: 11th Ed/Pg 35-36)

OPERATIVE DENTISTRY

76. Permeability of dentin does not depend upon:
A. Smear layer.
B. Diffusion co-efficient of fluid.
C. Convection of fluid
D. Length of dentinal tubules.

76. Answer is: Still searching

77. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on a radiograph by:
A. Visible light.
B. Ultrasonic light.
C. Fibre optic trans-illumination.
D. Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.

77. Answer is: D- Digital Fibre optic trans-illumination.
(Ref. Damle 3rd Ed/ 51, Internet references) Repeat AIPG-06.

78. Resistance form is that shape of a cavity which:
A. Prevents displacement of restoration.
B. Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
C. Prevents displacement of restoration & Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
D. Allows for adequate instrumentation.

78. Answer is: B- Permits restoration to withstand occlusal forces.
(Ref. Sturdevant’s: 4th Ed/pg 290)

79. Pin used in pin retained restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is:
A. Cemented.
B. Friction locked.
C. Self threaded.
D. Any of the above.

79. Answer is: A- Cemented pin
(Ref: Sturdevant- 2nd Ed. / Page. 373.) Repeat AIPG-06.

ENDODONTICS

80. Sterilization of Gutta percha points is done by:
A. Hot salt sterilizer
B. Autoclaving
C. Chemical solutions
D. Dry heat.

80. Answer is: C- Chemical solutions.
(Ref: Grossman-11th Ed/ Pg 140) Repeat AIPG-06.

81. Difference between physical characteristics of a file & reamer is:
A. The cross-section of reamers is square and files are triangular in cross section.
B. The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
C. The reamers have more flutes in the blade.
D. Files have two superficial grooves to produce flutes in a double helix design.

81. Answer is: B- The numbers of flutes on the blade are more in files than in reamers.
(Ref. Grossman 11th Ed/ 195) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

ORTHODONTICS

82. A dentist performed restorative procedure in an 11 year old child and found that the primary molars were in various stages of exfoliation with slight anterior crowding present. His next appointment should be:
A. After three months for observation
B. After six months for recall checkup
C. After one year
D. When all the permanent teeth will erupt

82. Answer is: A- After three months for observation
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.16, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-07.

83. Rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance is primarily meant for:
A. Correction of crown root position
B. Increasing the strength of wire
C. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency
D. Used for correction of anterior crowding

83. Answer is: A- Correction of crown root position
(Ref. Proffit- 2nd Ed/Pg 343) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

84. A buccal coil spring is used to regain space between 1st premolar & 1st molar. The most common post treatment complication is:
A. Pain
B. Gingival irritation
C. Tendency for the 1st molar to intrude
D. Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate

84. Answer is: D- Tendency for the 1st premolar to rotate
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.26, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

85. Arch space for the eruption of 3rd molars is created by:
A. Apposition of alveolar process
B. Resorption of posterior border of Ramus
C. Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
D. Apposition of lower body of mandible.

85. Answer is: C- Resorption of anterior border of Ramus.
(Ref. Bhalajhi 3rd Ed/ Pg 33) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

86. ANB angle of 2? indicates:
A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors

86. Answer is: A- A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base.
(Ref: Bhalajhi- 3rd Ed/ 154, National boards series-Q. no.23, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

87. When a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance is first placed, the effect on patient’s speech will be:
A. Difficulty with lingual vowels for a few days.
B. Difficulty with lingual vowel for several weeks.
C. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
D. Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for several weeks.

87. Answer is: C- Difficulty with linguoalveolar consonants for a few days.
(Ref: National boards series-Q. no.24, March 1980 paper) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

PEDODONTICS

88. Pulse oxymetry is used for the determination of:
A. Rate of blood flow.
B. Oxygen saturation.
C. Blood volume.
D. Blood coefficient.

88. Answer is: B- Oxygen saturation
(Ref. Shobha Tandon 1st Ed/ Pg 338) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

89. A non-invasive method to measure the blood flow is:
A. Electric pulp testing.
B. Percussion.
C. Laser Doppler flowmetry.
D. Radiographic visualization.

89. Answer is: C- Laser Doppler flowmetry
(Ref. Shobha Tandon, 1st Ed/ 332) Repeat AIIMS-MAY-06.

90. First to advocate distal shoe in 1929:
A. Wilson.
B. William.
C. Willet.
D. Roche.

90. Answer is: C- Willet.
(Ref: AIIMS-MAY-06, Q-86)

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MDS----(Master of Dental Surgery)

MDS is the branch of medicine dealing with the anatomy and development and diseases of the teeth. The duration of Master of Dental Surgery is generally three years, however there is a provision of two years M.D.S. Course for candidates who have passed Post Graduate.

Some Specializations in MDS---

• Prosthodontics
• Periodontics
• Orthodontics
• Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery
• Operative Dentistry
• Pedodontics & Preventive Dentistry
• Conservative, Endodontics & Aesthetic Dentistry
• Periodontology & Oral Implantology
• Oral Medicine & Radiology

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