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i am doing my final year civil engineering.i set to prepare for the upcoming gate exam and wish to get through.so i need a standard study material along with last ten years solved question paper in civil eng..

Dear Friend

You can use the study materials of Made Easy coaching for GATE.
Previous years question papers of GATE Civil Engineering have been attached with
this message.
Find them into the attachments.

Originally Posted by geethanjalishekar

i am doing my final year civil engineering.i set to prepare for the upcoming gate exam and wish to get through.so i need a standard study material along with last ten years solved question paper in civil eng..

GATE - CIVIL EXAM PREPARATION

I have attached the previous year model papers of GATE - Civil exam in this post.. kindly check it over.. hope it helps for your preparation...

-> PATTERN FOR GATE - CIVIL EXAM : It is very important to know the pattern of the exam which helps to save a lot of time in the exam.. The pattern for GATE - CIVIL exam is as follows...

-> The exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions for 3 hrs duration...

-> Negative marking is there in the exam, so attend the questions which you are sure with answers..

-> REFER GOOD BOOKS FOR PREPARATION : Some of the recommended books for GATE - Civil exam are a follows..

Gate Guide 2012 - Civil Engineering PB
Author: Gkp
ISBN: 8183550240



GATE 2011 Civil Engineering
Author: Gkp
ISBN: 818355024X



Popular Master Guide Gate Civil Engineering
Author: Rph Editorial Board
ISBN: 8178121336



Gate Civil Engineering
Author: Dilliip Kumar Bera, Subhrajit Das
ISBN: 817884043



Gate Papers Civil Engg. Solved Papers (Topic Wise)
Author: Gate
ISBN: 8183554466



Chapter Wise Solutions Of GATE (Engineering) CIVIL ENGINEERING
Author: Panel Of Experts
ISBN: 0042151047

Below I have listed some books which will help you in preparing for Gate Civil Engineering:

• Strength of Materials, Theory of Structures by Rammamrutham.
• Soil Mechanics by V N S Murthy.
• Survey by Aurora, Som Ghosh.
• Water Resources by S K Garg.
• Transportation by Justo Khanna.
• Steel Design by Kazimi Zindal for improving concepts and practise numericals from Negi.
• RCC Design by Krishna Raju, PC Verghese.
• Prestressed Concrete by Krishna Raju.
• Reinforced Concrete by ashok k jain

Besides that you can also refer the below mentioned books for more practice:

• Previous GATE Question papers(Made Easy Publishers,GK publishers etc)
• Previous Engg Services question papers(Made Easy Publishers)
• Aptitude Test-D R Choudhary
• Multiple choice questions by Timothy . J . Williams , TMH publications

I have attached the previous 5 years question paper.
You can view them & get an idea of question paper pattern

Originally Posted by geethanjalishekar

i am doing my final year civil engineering.i set to prepare for the upcoming gate exam and wish to get through.so i need a standard study material along with last ten years solved question paper in civil eng..

hii, there are few simple strategies that you need to do to crack the GATE exam, first of all get all the standard text books of all the subjects,then go with the problem solving of as many problems as you can, solve all multi level questions.

you can go with gateforum material,onestopgate and g k publishers all are very good annd helpfull for you, to crack the exam.

GATE-1999

CIVIL ENGINEERING

SECTION A (75 Marks)

1. This question consists of 35 (Thirty five) multiple choice type sub-questions, each carrying one mark. The answer to the multiple choice questions MUST be written only in the boxes corresponding to the question by writing A, B, C, or D in the answer book. (35 x 1 = 35)

1.1 Limit of the function lim n ® ¥

(a)

(b) 0

(c) ¥

(d) 1



1.2 The function f(x) = e x is

(a) Even (b) Odd

(c) Neither even nor odd (d) None of the above



1.3 If A is any n x n matrix and k is a scalar, | kA | = a | A |, where a is

(a) kn (b) n k

(c) k n (d) k/n



1.4 The infinite series



(a) Converges (b) Diverges

(c) is unstable (d) Oscillates



1.5 Number of inflection points for the curve y = x + 2 x 4 is

(a) 3 (b) 1

(c) n (d) (n + 1) 2



1.6 Number of terms in the expansion of general determinant of order n is

(a) n 2 (b) n!

(c) n (d) (n + 1) 2





1.7 Two perpendicular axes x and y of a section are called principal axes when

(a) Moments of inertia about the axes are equal (I x =I y)

(b) Product moment of inertia (I xy) is zero

(c) Product moments of inertia (I x x I y) is zero

(d) Moment of inertia about one of the axes is greater than the other



1.8 In a section, shear centre is a point through which, if the resultant load passes, the section will not be subjected to any

(a) Bending (b) Tension

(c) Compression (d) Torsion

1.9 For a fixed beam with span L, having plastic moment capacity of M p, the ultimate

central concentrated load will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)



1.10 In reinforced concrete, pedestal is defined as compression member, whose effective length does not exceed its dimension by

(a) 12 times (b) 3 times

(c) 16 times (d) 8 times



1.11 The minimum area of tension reinforcement in a beam shall be greater than

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)



1.12 The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as that compressive strength below which not more than

(a) 10% of results fall (b) 5% of results fall

(c) 2% of results fall (d) None of the above



1.13 Maximum strain at the level of compression steel for a rectangular section having effective cover to compression steel as d' and neutral axis depth from compression face as x u is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)



1.14 A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as

(a) Stringer beam (b) Lintel beam

(c) Spandrel beam (d) Header beam



1.15 The problem of lateral buckling can arise only in those steel beams, which have

(a) moment of inertial about the bending axis larger than the other

(b) moment of inertial about the bending axis smaller than the other

(c) fully supported compression flange

(d) None of the above





1.16 The values of liquid limit and plasticity index for soils having common geological origin in a restricted locality usually define

(a) a zone above A - line

(b) a straight line parallel to A - line

(c) a straight line perpendicular to A - line

(d) points may be anywhere in the plasticity chart



1.17 The toughness index of clayey soils is given by

(a) Plasticity index/Flow index (b) Liquid limit/Plastic limit

(c) Liquidity index/Plastic limit (d) Plastic limit/Liquidity index.



1.18 Principle involved in the relationship between submerged unit weight and saturated weight of a soil is based on

Equilibrium of floating bodies
Archimedes' principle
Stokes' law
Darcy's law


1.19 For an anisotropic soil, permeabilities in x and y directions are k x and k y respectively in a two dimensional flow. The effective permeability k eff for the soil is given by



(a) k x + k y


(k x 2 + k y 2) 1/2
(k xk y) 1/2


1.20 Cohesion in soil

(a) decreases active pressure and increases passive resistance

(b) decreases both active pressure and passive resistance

(c) increases the active pressure and decreases the passive resistance

(d) increases both active pressure and passive resistance



1.21 Consolidation in soils

(a) is a function of the effective stress

(b) does not depend on the present stress

(c) is a function of the pore water pressure

(d) is a function of the total stress



1.22 The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10.30. The Froude Number at the beginning of the jump is

(a) 5.64 (b) 7.63

(c) 8.05 (d) 13.61



1.23 In an iceberg, 15% of the volume projects above the sea surface. If the specific weight of sea water is 10.5 kN/m 3, the specific weight of iceberg in kN/m 3 is

(a) 12.52 (b) 9.81

(c) 8.93 (d) 7.83



1.24 The ordinate of the Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment at any, time t, is

(a) the slope of the 1-hour unit hydrograph at that time

(b) the slope of the direct runoff unit hydrograph at that time

(c) difference in the slope of the S - curve and 1 - hour unit hydrograph

(d) the slope of the S-curve with effective rainfall intensity of 1cm/hr



1.25 An isochrone is a line on the basin map

(a) joining raingauge stations having equal rainfall duration

(b) joining points having equal rainfall depth in a given time interval

(c) joining points having equal time of travel of surface runoff to the catchment outlet.

(d) joining points which are at equal distance from the catchment outlet.



1.26 In a steady radial flow into an intake, the velocity is found to vary as (1/r 2), where r is the radial distance. The acceleration of the flow is proportional to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)





1.27 A soil formation through which only seepage is possible, being partly permeable and capable of giving insignificant yield, is classified as

(a) Aquifer (b) Aquitard

(c) Aquifuge (d) Aquiclude



1.28 Temporary hardness in water is caused by the presence of

(a) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg (b) Sulphates of Ca and Mg

(c) Chlorides of Ca and Mg (d) Nitrates of Ca and Mg



1.29 Blue baby disease (methaemoglobinemia) in children is caused by the presence of excess

(a) Chlorides (b) Nitrates

(c) Fluoride (d) Lead



1.30 Standard 5-day BOD of a waster water sample is nearly x% of the ultimate BOD, where x is

48
58
68
78


1.31 The minimum dissolved oxygen content (ppm) in a river necessary for the survival of aquatic life is

(a) 0 (b) 2

(c) 4 (d) 8



1.32 Chlorine is sometimes used in sewage treatment

(a) to avoid flocculation

(b) to increase biological activity of bacteria

(c) to avoid bulking of activated sludge

(d) to help in grease separation



1.33 The total length (in km) of the existing National Highways in India is in the range of

15,000 to 25,000
25,000 to 35,000
35,000 to 45,000
45,000 to 55,000


1.34 The relationship between the length (I) and radius (r) of an ideal transition curve is given by

l a r
l a r 2
l a (1/r)
l a (1/r 2)


1.35 Rapid curing cutback bitumen is produced by blending bitumen with

(a) Kerosene (b) Benzene

(c) Diesel (d) Petrol

2. This question consists of 20 (Twenty) multiple choice type sub-questions, each carrying TWO marks. The answers to the multiple choice questions MUST be, written only in the boxes corresponding to the question numbers writing A, B, C or D in the answer book. (20 x 2 = 40)

2.1 lf c is a constant, solution of the equation = 1 +y 2 is

(a) y = sin (x + c) (b) y = cos (x + c)

(c) Y = tan (x + c) (d) Y = e x + c



2.2 The equation represents a parabola passing through the points

(a) (0, 1), (0, 2), (0, - 1) (b) (0, 0), (- 1, 1), (1, 2)

(c) (1, 1), (0, 0), (2, 2) (d) (1, 2), (2, 1), (0, 0)



2.3 The Laplace transform of the function

f(t) = k, 0 < t < C

= 0, c < t < ¥ , is

(a)



(b)

(c)

(d)



2.4 Value of the function lim (x- a) (x-a) is

x ® a



1
0
¥
a


2.5 The shape factor of the section shown in Fig. 1 is

1.5
1.12
2
1.7
2.6 The slope of the elastic curve at the free end of a cantilever beam of span L, and with flexural rigidity EI, subjected to uniformly distributed load of intensity w is



(a)

(b)



(c)



(d)



2.7 If an element of a stressed body is in a state of pure shear with a magnitude of

80N/mn 2, the magnitude of maximum principal stress at that location is

(a) 80 N/mm 2 (b) 113.14 N/mm 2

(c) 120 N/mm 2 (d) 56.57 N/mm 2



2.8 Two steel plates each of width 150 mm and thickness 10 mm are connected with three 20 mm diameter rivets placed in a zig - zag pattern. The pitch of the rivets is 75 mm and gauge is 60 mm. If the allowable tensile stress is 150 MPs, the maximum tensile force that the joint can withstand is

(a) 195.66 kN (b) 195.00 kN

(c) 192.75 kN (d) 225.00 kN





2.9 The two tubes shown in Fig. 2 may be considered to be permeameters. Dimensions of the

sample in Fig. 2 (i) & (ii) are alike, and the elevations of head water and tail water are

the same for both the figures. A, B,……..etc. indicate points and AB, AE,….etc. indicated

heads. Head loss through these samples are



(i) BD, (ii) FE
(i)AC, (ii)AE
(i) AD, (ii) AF
(i) AB, (ii) AB


2.10 A river 5 m deep consists of a sand bed with saturated unit weight of 20 kN/m 3

v w = 9.81 kN/m 3. The effective vertical stress at 5m from the top of sand bed is



(a) 41 kN/m 2 (b) 51 kN/m 2

(c) 55 kN/m 2 (d) 53 kN/m 2





2.11 A soil sample in its natural state has mass of 2.290 kg and a volume of 1.15 x10 -3 m 3. After being oven dried, the mass of the sample is 2.035 kg. G s for soil is 2.68. The void ratio of the natural soil is

(a) 0.40 (b) 0.45

(c) 0.55 (d) 0.53

2.12 Triaxial compression test of three soil specimens exhibited the patterns of failure as shown in Fig. 3. Failure modes of the samples respectively are



(i) brittle, (ii) semi-plastic, (iii) plastic
(i) semi-plastic, (ii) brittle, (iii) plastic
(i) plastic, (ii) brittle, (iii) semi-plastic
(i) brittle, (ii) plastic, (iii) semi-plastic


2.13 A direct runoff hydrograph due to an isolated storm with an effective rainfall of 2 cm was trapezoidal in shape as shown in Fig. 4. The hydrograph cores ponds to a catchment area (in sq. km.) of



790.2
599.4
689.5
435.3








2.14 The number of revolutions of a current meter in 50 seconds were found to be 12 and 30 corresponding to the velocities of 0.25 and 0.46 m/s respectively. What velocity (in m/s) would be indicated by 50 revolutions of that current meter in one minute?

0.42
0.50
0.60
0.73


2.15 In a river, discharge is 173 mp 3/s; water surface slope is 1 in 6000; and stage at the gauge

station is 10.0 m. If during a flood, the stage at the gauge station is same and the water

surface slope is 1 in 2000, the flood discharge in m 3/s, is approximately

371
100
519
300


2.16 A hydraulic turbine has a discharge of 5 m 3/s, when operating under a head of 20 m with a speed of 500 rpm. If it is to operate under a head of 15 m, for the same discharge, the rotational speed in rpm will approximately be

(a) 433 (b) 403

(c) 627 (d) 388

2.17 Two samples of water A and B have pH values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How many times more acidic sample A is than sample B?

(a) 0 (b) 50

(c) 100 (d) 200

2.18 In a BOD test, 5 ml of waste is added to 295 ml of aerated pure water. Initial dissolved oxygen (D.O.) content of the diluted sample is 7.8 mg/l. After 5 days of incubation at 20°C, the D.O. content of the sample is reduced to 4.4 mg/l. The BOD of the waste water is

196 mg/l
200 mg/l
204 mg/l
268 mg/l




2.19 A parabolic curve is used to connect a 4% upgrade with a 2% downgrade as shown in Fig.5. The highest point on the summit is at a distance of (measured horizontally from the first tangent point-FTP).



50 m
60 m
75 m
100 m


2.20 A two lane single carriageway is to be designed for a design life period of 15 years. Total two - way traffic intensity in the year of completion of construction is expected to be 2000 commercial vehicles per day. Vehicle damage factor = 3.0, Lane distribution factor = 0.75. Assuming an annual rate of traffic growth as 7.5%, the design traffic expressed as cumulative number of standard axles, is

(a) 42.9 x 16 6 (b) 22.6 x 16 6

(c) 10.1 X 16 6 (d) 5.3 X 16 6




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Topic: GATE Question Papers - Civil Engineering - 2000
Posted: 11Nov2007 at 10:59pm
GATE 2000

CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING
SECTION A (75 Marks)



1. This question consists of 27 (Twenty Seven) multiple-choice type sub-questions each carrying one mark. The answers to the multiple choice questions MUST be written only in the boxes corresponding to the question number by writing A, B, C or D in the answer book. (27 x 1 = 27)



1.1. If A, B, C are square matrices of the same order, (ABC) -l is equal to

C -l A -1 B -1
C -l B -1 A -1
A -1 B -1 C -l
A -1 C -l B -1
1.2. The following integral lim a ® ¥

(a) Diverges (b) Converges to

(c) Converges to (d) Converges to 0



1.3. A function with a period 2 is shown below





The Fourier series for this function is given by

(a) .

(b)

(c)

(d)





1.4. Consider the following two statements:

I. The maximum number of linearly independent column vectors of a matrix A is called the rank of A.



II. If A is an n x n square matrix, it will be nonsingular if rank A = n. With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?



(a) Both the statements are false. (b) Both the statements are true.

(c) I is true but II is false. (d) I is false but II is true.



1.5. The dimensions for the flexural rigidity of a beam element in mass (M), length (L) and time (T) is given by



MT -2 (b) ML 3T -2
(c) ML -lT -2 (d) ML -l T 2*



1.6. A two span beam with an internal hinge is shown below.



The conjugate beam corresponding to this beam is





1.7. Pick the incorrect statement from the following four statements:



On the plane which carries maximum normal stress, the shear stress is zero.
Principal planes are mutually orthogonal.
On the plane which carries maximum shear stress, the normal stress is zero.
The principal stress axes and principal strain axes coincide for an isotropic material.


1.8. A frame ABCD is supported by a roller at A and is on a hinge at C as shown below:





The reaction at the roller end A is given by



(a) P (b) 2 P

(c) P/2 (d) Zero.



1.9. The following two statements are made with reference to a simply supported under-reinforced RCC beam:



I. Failure takes place by crushing of concrete before the steel has yielded.

II. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased.

With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?



Both the statements are false.
I is true but II is false.
Both the statements are true.
I is false but II is true.
1.10. The stress-strain diagram for two materials A and B is shown below:





The following statements are made based on this diagram:

(I) Material A is more brittle than material B.

(II) The ultimate strength of material B is more than that of A.

With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?



Both the statements are false. (b) Both the statements are true.
(c) I is true but II is false. (d) I is false but II is true.



1.11. Four column of the same material and having identical geometric properties

are supported in different ways as shown below:







It is required to order these four beams in the increasing order of their respective first buckling loads. The correct order is given by

(a) I, II, III, IV (b) III, IV, I, II

(c) II, I, IV, III (d) I, II, IV, III



1.12. A soil sample has a void ratio of 0.5 and its porosity will be close to

50%
66%
100%
33%


1.13. A borrow pit soil has a dry density of 17 kN/m 3. How many cubic meters of this soil will be required to construct an embankment of 100 m 3 volume with a dry density of 16 kN/m 3.

(a) 94 m 3 (b) 106 m 3

(c) 100 m 3 (d) 90 m 3



1.14. The group efficiency of a pile group

(a) will be always less than 100%.

(b) will be always greater than 100%

(c) may be less than 100% or more than 100%.

(d) will be more than 100% for pile groups in cohesion less soils and less than 100% for those in cohesive soils.



1.15. The two criteria for the determination of allowable bearing capacity of a foundation are

(a) tensile failure and compression failure.

(b) tensile failure and settlement.

(c) bond failure and shear failure.

(d) shear failure and settlement.



1.16. If duty (D) is 1428 hectares/cumec and base period (B) is 120 days for an irrigated

crop, then delta ( D ) in meters is given by

(a) 102.8 (b) 0.73

(c) 1.38 (d) 0.01



1.17. The relation that must hold for the flow to be irrotational is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

1.18. Cavitation is caused by

(a) high velocity (b) low pressure

(c) high pressure (d) high temperature



1.19. If the pump head is 15m, discharge is 0.464 m 3/s and the motor speed is 1440 rpm at rated condition, the specific-speed of the pump is about

(a) 4 (b) 26

(c) 38 (d) 1440



1.20. The BOD removal efficiency, in percentage, during primary treatment, under normal conditions is about

(a) 65% (b) 85%

(c) 30% (d) Zero



1.21. Critical factors for the activated sludge treatment process are

(a) maximum hourly flow rate.

(b) maximum and minimum flow rate.

(c) maximum hourly flow rate and maximum daily organic load.

(d) minimum hourly flow rate and minimum daily organic load.



1.22. Use of coagulants such as alum

(a) results in reduction of pH of the treated water.

(b) results in increase of pH of the treated water.

(c) results in no change in pH of the treated water.

(d) may cause an increase or decrease of pH of the treated water.



1.23. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in water treatment

(a) is not dependent on pH value.

(b) is increase by increased pH value.

(c) remains constant at all pH values.

(d) is reduced by increased pH value.



1.24. The standard plate size in a plate bearing test for finding modulus of subgrade reaction (k) value is

100 cm diameter
50 cm diameter
75 cm diameter
25 cm diameter


1.25. Width of carriageway for a single lane is recommended to be

(a) 7.5 m (b) 7.0 m

(c) 3.75 m (d) 5.5 m



1.26. Stopping sight distance is the minimum distance available on a highway which is the

(a) distance of sufficient length to stop the vehicle without collision.

(b) distance visible to a driver during night driving.

(c) height of the object above the road surface.

(d) distance equal to the height of the driver's eye above the road surface.



1.27. Bituminous materials are commonly use in highway construction because of their good

(a) tensile and compression properties.

(b) binding and water proofing properties.

(c) shear strength and tensile properties.

(d) bond and tensile properties.



2. This question consists of24 (Twenty Four) multiple-choice type sub-questions, each carrying TWO marks. The answers to the multiple choice questions MUST be written only in the boxes corresponding to the question numbers writing A, B, C or D in the answer book. (24 x 2 = 48)



2.1. If f(x, y, z) = (x 2 +y 2 +z 2) -1/2

is equal to

Zero
1
2
- 3 (x 2 + y 2 + z 2) -5/2


2.2. The Taylor expansion of sin x about x = p /6 is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)





2.3. Let F(s) =£ [f(t)] denote the Laplace transform of the function f(t). Which of the following statements is correct?



(a) £ £

(b) £ £

(c) £ £

(d) £ £





2.4. The limit of the function f(x) = [1- a 4 / x 4] as x ® ¥ is given by

1
exp[- a 4 ]
¥
Zero


2.5. The maxima and minima of the function f(x) = 2x 3 - 15x 2 + 36x + 10 occur, respectively, at

(a) X = 3 and X = 2 (b) X = 1 and X = 3

(c) X = 2 and X = 3 (d) X = 3 and X = 4



2.6. The four cross sections shown below are required to be ordered in the increasing

order of their respective shape factors.







Which of the following order is correct?

(a) III, I, IV, II (b) I, II, III, IV

(c) III, IV, I II (d) III, IV, II, I



2.7. A simply supported beam with an- overhang is traversed by a unit concentrated moment from the left t>a. the right as shown below:







The influence line for reaction at B is given by



(d) zero everywhere

2.8. The following two statements are made with reference to the planar truss shown

below:





I. The truss is statically determinate

II. The truss is kinematically determinate

With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?

(a) Both statements are true. (b) Both statements are false.

(c) II is true but I false. (d) I is true but II is false.



2.9. A cantilever beam of length L and a cross section with shape factor f supports a concentrated load P as shown below:



The length L p of the plastic zone, when the maximum bending moment, equals the plastic moment M p, given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)



2.10. For the structure shown below, the vertical deflection at point A is given by



(a)

(b)

(c)Zero

(d)



2.11. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 300 kN/m 2. The depth of foundation is 1m and unit weight of soil is 20 kN/m 3. Choosing a factor of safety of 2.5, the net safe bearing capacity is

(a) 100 kN/m 2 (c) 80 kN/m 2

(b) 112 kN/m 2 (d) 100.5 kN/m 2



2.12. A deep cut of 1m has to be made in a clay with unit weight 16 kN/m 3 and a cohesion of 25 kN/m 2. What will be the factor of safety if one has to have a slope angle of 30°? Stability number is given to be 0.178 (from Taylor's chart) for a depth factor of 3.

(a) 0.80 (c) 1.25

(b) 1.1 (d) 1.0



2.13. In a drained triaxial compression test, a saturated specimen of a cohesion less sand fails under a deviatoric stress of 3 kgf/cm 2 when the cell pressure is 1 kgf/cm 2. The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is about

(a) 37° (b) 45°

(c) 53° (d) 20°



2.14. Two footings, one circular and the other square, are founded on the surface of a purely cohesion less soil. The diameter of the circular footing is same as that of the side of the square footing. The ratio of their ultimate bearing capacities is

(a) 3/4 (b) 4/3

(c) 1.0 (d) 1.3



2.15. To have zero active pressure intensity at the tip of a wall in cohesive soil, one

should apply a uniform surcharge intensity of

(a) 2 c tan a (b) 2 c cot a

(c) - 2 c tan a (d) - 2 c tan a



2.16. Water flows at a depth of 0.1m with a velocity of 6 m/s in a rectangular channel. The alternate depth is

0.30 m
0.40 m
0.86 m
0.81 m


2.17. In an area of 200 hectare, water table drops by 4 m. If the porosity is 0.35 and the

specific retention is 0.15, change in volume of storage in the aquifer is.

(a) 160 m 3 (b) 1.6 x 106 m

(c) 8 x 106 m 3 (d) 1.6 x 103 m 3



2.18. A tube well having a capacity of 4 m 3/hour operates for 20 hours each day during

the irrigation season. How much area can be commanded if the irrigation interval

is 20 days and depth of irrigation is 7 cm ?

(a) 1.71 x 10 4 m 2 (b) 1.14 x 10 4 m 2

(c) 22.9 x 10 4 m 2 (d) 2.29 x 10 4 m 2

2.19. The parameters in Horton's infiltration equation [f(t) = f c + (f o - f c ) e -kt] are given as, f o = 7.62 cm/hour, f c = 1.34 cm/hour and k = 4.182/hour. For assumed continuous ponding the cumulative infiltration at the end of 2 hours is

(a) 2.68 cm (b) 1.50 cm

(c) 1.34 cm (d) 4.18 cm



2.20. Water flows at a rate of 10 m 3/s in a rectangular channel 3 m wide. The critical depth of flow is

1.13 m
2m
1.45 m
1.04 m


2.21. A circular sewer 2m diameter has to carry a discharge of 2 m 3/s when flowing nearly full. What is the minimum required slope to initiate the flow? Assume Manning's n = 0.015.

(a) 0.00023 (b) 0.000036

(c) 0.000091 (d) 0.000014



2.22. The following characteristics pertain to the sand filters used in water industry.

Filtration rate is 1 to 4 m 3/(m 2 day).
Typical duration of operation in one run is 24 to 72 hours.
Operating cost is low.


Which of the above characteristics pertain to slow sand filters?

(a) I, II and III (b) I and II

(c) II and III (d) I and III



2.23. The ruling minimum radius of horizontal curve of a national highway in plain terrain for a ruling design speed of 100 km/hour with e = 0.07 and f = 0.15 is close to

(a) 250 m (b) 360 m

(c) 36 m (d) 300 m



2.24. Design rate of super elevation for horizontal highway curve of radius 450 m for a mixed traffic condition, having a speed of 125 km/hour is

(a) 1.0 (b) 0.05

(c) 0.07 (d) 0.1.54

Topic: GATE Question Papers - Civil Engineering - 2001
Posted: 11Nov2007 at 11:01pm
GATE-200 1



CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING





SECTION A

(75 Marks)

CE.l. This question consists of TWENTY FIVE sub-questions (1.1-1.25) of ONE mark each. For each of these sub-questions four possible answers (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which only one is correct. Answer each sub-question by darkening the appropriate bubble on the OBJECTIVE RESPONSE SHEET (ORS) using a soft HB pencil. Do not use the ORS for any rough work. You may use the Answer Book for any rough work, if needed. (25 x 1 = 25)



1.1. The number of boundary conditions required to solve the following differential equation is

(a) 2 (c) 4

(b) 0 (d) 1

1.2. The value of the integral is I =

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

1.3. The limit of the following series as x approaches is





(a) (b)

(c) (d) 1



1.4. The degree of static indeterminacy, N s’ and the degree of kinematic indeterminacy, N k’ for the plane frame shown below, assuming axial deformations to be negligible, are given by

(a) N s = 6 and N k = 11

(b) N s = 6 and N k = 6

(c) N s = 4 and N k = 6

(d) N s = 4 and N k = 4

1.5. The bending moment (in kNm units) at the mid-span location X in the beam with overhangs shown below-is equal to:

(a) 0

(b) - 1 0

(c) - 15

(d) -20



1.6. Identify the FALSE statement from the following, pertaining to the effects due to a temperature rise D T in the bar BD alone in the plane truss shown below:



(a) No reactions develop at supports A and D.

(b) The bar BD will be subject to a tensile force.

(c) The bar AC will be subject to a compressive force.

(d) The bar BC will be subject to a tensile force.



1.7. Identify the correct deflection diagram corresponding to the loading in the plane frame shown below:





1.8. Identify the FALSE statement from the following, pertaining to the methods of structural analysis:

Influence lines for stress resultants in beams can be drawn using Miller Breslau's Principle.
The Moment Distribution Method is a force method of analysis, not a displacement method.
The Principle of Virtual Displacements can be used to establish a condition of equilibrium. .
The Substitute Frame Method is not applicable to frames subject to significant sideway.
1.9. Identify the FALSE statement from the following, pertaining to the design of concrete structures:

The assumption of a linear strain profile in flexure is made use of in working stress design, but not in ultimate limit state design.
Torsional reinforcement is not required to be provided at the coners of simply supported rectangular slabs, if the coners are free to lift up.
A rectangular slab, whose length exceeds twice its width, always behaves as a two-way slab, regardless of the support conditions.
The 'load balancing' concept can be applied to select the appropriate tendon profile in a prestressed concrete beam subject to a given pattern of loads.


1.10. Identify the most efficient butt joint (with double cover plates) for a plate in tension from the patterns (plan views) shown below, each comprising 6 identical bolts with the same pitch and gauge:





1.11. The following two statements are made with respect to different sand samples having the same relative density. Identify if they are TRUE or FALSE.

I. Poorly graded sands will have lower friction angle than the well graded sands.

II. The particle size has no influence on the friction angle of sand.



(a) II is TRUE but I is FALSE (b) Both are FALSE statements

(c) Both are TRUE statements. (d) I is TRUE but II is false.



1.12. The following two statements are made with reference to the calculation of net bearing capacity of a footing in pure clay soil ( f = 0) using Terzaghi's bearing capacity theory. Identify if they are TRUE or FALSE.



I. Increase in footing width will result in increase in bearing capacity.

II. Increase in depth of foundation will result in higher bearing capacity.



(a) Both statements are TRUE (b) Both statements are FALSE

(c) I is TRUE but II is FALSE (d) I is FALSE but II is TRUE



1.13. The width and depth of a footing are 2 and 1.5 m respectively. The water table at the site is at a depth of 3 m below the ground level. The water table correction factor for the calculation of the bearing capacity of soil is

(a) 0.875 (b) 1.000

(c) 0.925 (d) 0.500



1.14. The void ratio and specific gravity of a soil are 0.65 and 2.72 respectively. The degree of saturation (in percent) corresponding to water content of 20% is

(a) 65.3 (b) 20.9

(c) 83.7 (d) 54.4



1.15. With respect to a c- f soil in an infinite slope, identify if the following two statements are TRUE or FALSE.

I. The stable slope angle can be greater than f

II: The factor of safety of the slope does not depend on the height soil in the slope.



(a) Both statements are FALSE (b) I is TRUE but II is FALSE

(c) I is FALSE but II is TRUE (d) Both statements are TRUE

1.16. In the Bernoulli equation. used in pipe flow. each term represents

(a) Energy per unit weight (b) Energy per unit mass

(c) Energy per unit volume (d) Energy per unit flow length



1.17. The stage-discharge relation in a river during the passage of flood is measured. If q f is the discharge at the stage when water surface is falling and q r is the discharge at the same stage when water surface is rising, then

(a) q f= q r (b) q f < q r

(c) q f > q r (d) = constant for all stages

1.18. lsopleths are lines on a map through points having equal depth of

(a) Rainfall (b) Infiltration

(c) Evapotranspiration (d) Total runoff



1.19. A linear reservoir is one in which

(a) Storage varies linearly with time

(b) Storage varies linearly with outflow rate

(c) Storage varies linearly with inflow rate

(d) Storage varies linearly with elevation



1.20. Aeration of water is done to remove

(a) Suspended Impurities (b) Colour

(c) Dissolved Salts (d) Dissolved Gases



1.21. The following chemical is used for coagulation.

(a) Ammonium Chloride. (b) Aluminium Chloride.

(c) Aluminium Sulphate. (d) Copper Sulphate.



1.22. The unit in which both sedimentation and digestion processes of sludge take place simultaneously is

(a) Skimming Tank (b) Imhoff Tank

(c) Detritus Tank (d) Digestion Tank



1.23. The design value of lateral friction coefficient on highway is

(a) 1.5 (b) 0.50

(c) 0.35 (d) 0.15

1.24. Camber on highway pavement is provided to take care of

(a) Centrifugal Force. (b) Drainage.

(c) Sight Distance (d) Off-Tracking.



1.25 The minimum value of CBR (%) required for granular sub-base as per Ministry of Surface Transport (MOST) specification is

(a) 5 (b) 10

(c) 15 (d) 20



CE.2. This question consists of Twenty Five sub-questions (2.1.-2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions four possible answers (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which only one is correct. Answer each sub-question by darkening the appropriate bubble on the OBJECTIVE RESPONSE SHEET (ORS) using a soft HB pencil. Do not use the ORS for any rough work. You may use the Answer Book for any rough work, if needed. (25 x 2 = 50)



2.1. Determinant of the following matrix is





– 76
(b) – 28

(c) + 28

(d) + 72



2.2. The inverse Laplace Transform of is,



(a) (b)

(c) (d)





2.3. The solution for the following differential equation with boundary conditions

y(0) = 2 and y'(1) =- 3 is,



(a) (b)

(c) (d)

2.4. The product

[Q] T of the following two matrices

and [Q] is



(a) (b)



(c) (d)



2.5. The given values of the matrix are,

(a) (5.13,9.42) (b) (3.85,2.93)

(c) (9.00,5.00) (d) (10.16,3.84)



2.6. The frame below shows three beam elements OA, OB and OC, with identical length L and flexural rigidity El, subject to an external moment M applied at the rigid joint O. The correct set of bending moments {M OA' M oB' M oc} that develop at O in the three beam elements OA, OB and OC respectively, is:



El/Lis constant for all three members

(a) {3M/8, M/8, 4M/8} (b) {3M/11, 4M/11, 4M/11}

(c) { M/3, M/3, M/3} (d) {3M/7, 0, 4M/7}



2.7. Identify, from the following, the correct value of the bending moment M A (in kNm units) at the fixed end A in the statically determinate beam shown below (with internal hinges at B and D), when a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m is placed on all spans. (Hint: Sketching the influence line for M A or applying the Principle of Virtual Displacements makes the solution easy).



(a) -80 (b) -40

(c) 0 (d) + 40



2.8. The end moment (in kNm units) developed in the roof level beams in the laterally loaded frame shown below (with all columns having identical cross-sections), according to the Cantilever Method of simplified analysis, is :



(a) 7.5 (b) 15

(c) 20 (d) 30





2.9. Consider the following two statements related to reinforced concrete design, and

identify whether they are TRUE or FALSE:

I. Curtailment of bars in the flexural tension zone in beams reduces the shear strength at the cut-off locations.

II. When a rectangular column section is subject to biaxially eccentric compression, the neutral axis will be parallel to the resultant axis of bending.

(a) Both statements I and II are TRUE.

(b) Statement I is TRUE, and statement II is FALSE.

(c) Statement I is FALSE, and statement II is TRUE.

(d) Both statements I and II are FALSE.



2.10. Consider the following two statements related to structural steel design, and identify whether they are TRUE or FALSE:

I. The Euler buckling load of a slender steel column depends on the yield strength of steel.

II. In the design of laced column, the maximum spacing of the lacing does not depend on the slenderness of column as a whole.

(a) Both statements I and II are TRUE.

(b) Statement I is TRUE, and statement II is FALSE.

(c) Statement I is FALSE, and statement II is TRUE.

(d) Both statements I and II are FALSE.



2.11. Identify the two FALSE statements from the following four statements.

I. The consolidation of soil happens due to the change in total stress.

II. When Standard Penetration Tests are performed in fine sands below the water table, the dilation correction is applied after the overburden correction is applied.

III. Over consolidated clays will have predominantly cohesive strength as compared to the frictional strength.

IV. Compaction of soils is due to expulsion of water.

(a) II & III (b) I & IV

(c) I & III (d) II & IV



2.12. The critical slip circle for a slope is shown below along with the soil properties.



The length of the arc of the slip circle is 15.6m and the area of soil within the slip circle is 82 m 2. The radius of the slip circles is 10.3 m. The factor of safety against the slip circle failure is nearly equal to,

(a) 1.05 (b) 1.22

(c) 0.78 (d) 1.28



2.13. The coefficients of permeability of a soil in horizontal and vertical directions are 3.46 and 1.5 m/day respectively. The base length of a concrete dam resting in this soil is 100 m. When the flow net is developed for this soil with 1 : 25 scale factor in the vertical direction, the reduced base length of the dam will be

(a) 2.63 m (b) 4.00 m

(c) 6.08 m (d) 5.43 m



2.14. A plate load test was conducted in sand on a 300 mm diameter plate. If the plate settlement was 5 mm at a pressure of 100 kPa, the settlement (in mm) of a 5 m x 8 m rectangular footing at the same pressure will be

(a) 9.4 (b) 18.6

(c) 12.7 (d) 17.8



2.15. Identify the two TRUE statements from the following four statements.

I. Negative skin friction is higher on floating piles than on end bearing piles.

II. All other things being the same in footings on sand, the footing with smaller

width will have lower settlement at the same net pressure.

III. The void ratio of soils is always less than 1.0.

IV. For determining the depth of embedment of anchored sheet piles, net moment

at the anchor elevation is set to zero.



(a) I & IV (b) I & III

(c) II & IV (d) II & III



2.16. A 15 cm length of steel rod with relative density of 7.4 is submerged in a two layer fluid. The bottom layer is mercury and the top layer is water. The height of top surface of the rod above the liquid interface in 'cm' is

(a) 8.24 (b) 7.82

(c) 7.64 (d) 7.38



2.17. The direct runoff hydrograph of a storm obtained from a catchment is triangular in shape and has a base period of 80 hours. The peak flow rate is 30 m 3/sec and catchment area is 86.4 km 2. The rainfall excess that has resulted the above hydrograph is

(a) 5 cm (b) 8 cm

(c) 10 cm (d) 16 cm



2.18. A field was supplied water from an irrigation tank at a rate of 120 lit/see to irrigate an area of 2.5 hectares. The duration of irrigation is 8 hours. It was found that the actual delivery at the field, which is about 4 km from the tank, was 100 lit/sec. The runoff loss in the field was estimated as 800 m 3. The application efficiency in this situation is

(a) 62% (b) 72%

(c) 76% (d) 80%



2.19. A trapezoidal channel with bottom width of 3m and side slope of IV:1.5H carries a discharge of 8.0 m 3/sec with the flow depth of 1.5m. The Froude number of the flow is

(a) 0.066 (b) 0.132

(c) 0.265 (d) 0.528





2.20. In a 1/50 model of a spillway, the discharge was measured to be 0.3 m 3/sec. The

corresponding prototype discharge in m 3/sec is

(a) 2.0 (b). 15.0

(c) 106.0 (d) 5303.0



2.21. If the BOD 5,20 of waste is 150mg/L and the reaction rate constant (to the base 'e')

at 20°C is 0.35/day, then the ultimate BOD in mg/L is *

(a) 97.5 (b) 181.5

(c) 212.9 (d) 230.5



2.22. The Ca 2+ concentration and Mg 2+ concentration of a water sample are 160 mg/lit and 40 mg/lit as their ions respectively. The total hardness of this water sample in terms of CaCO 3 in mg / lit is approximately equal to

(a) 120 (b) 200

(c) 267 (d) 567



2.23. A town has an existing horizontal flow sedimentation tank with an overflow rate of 17m 3/day/m 2, and it is desirable to remove particles that have settling velocity of 0.1mm/sec. Assuming the tank is an ideal sedimentation tank, the percentage of particles removal is approximately equal to

(a) 30% (b) 50%

(c) 70% (d) 90%



2.24. A valley curve has a descending gradient of 1 in 40 followed by an ascending* gradient of 1 in 50. The length of the valley curve required for a design speed of 80 km/hour for comfort condition is

(a) 199 m (b) 116 m

(c) 58 m (d) 37 m



2.25. The radius of relative stiffness for a 20 cm thick slab with E = 3 x 10 5kg/cm 2 and Poisson's ratio = 0.15, resting on a subgrade having modulus of 5kg/cm 3 is

(a) 10 cm (b) 80 cm

(c) 120 cm (d) 320 cm

Topic: GATE Question Papers - Civil Engineering - 2002
Posted: 11Nov2007 at 11:02pm
GATE 2002

CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING

SECTION A (75 Marks)

CE-l. This question consists of TWENTY FIVE sub-questions (1.1 - 1.25) of ONE mark each. For each of these sub-questions four possible answers (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Answer each sub question by darkening the appropriate bubble on the OBJECTIVE RESPONSE SHEET (ORS) using a soft HB pencil. Do not use the ORS for any rough work. . You may use the Answer Book for any rough work, if needed.



1.1 Eigen values of the following matrix are:



(A) 3 and-5 (B) -3 and 5

(C) -3 and-5 (D) 3 and 5



1.2 The value of the following definite integral is:



(A) -2 In2

(B) 2

(C) 0



The following function has a local minima at which value of x:


(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)



1.4 For the loading given in the figure below; two statements (I and II) are made.



Member AB carries shear force and bending moment
Member BC carries axial load and shear force.


Which of the following is true:

Statement I is true but II is false
Statement I is false but II is true
Both statements I and II are true
Both statements I and II are false


1.5 Read the following two statements



I. Maximum strain in concrete at the outermost compression fibre is taken to be 0.0035 in bending.

II. The maximum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression is taken as 0.002.



Keeping the provisions of IS 456-2000 on limit state design in mind, which of the following is true:

Statement I is true but II is false
Statement I is false but II is true
Both statements I and II are true
Both statements I and II are false


1.6 As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the (short term) modulus of elasticity of M25 grade concrete (in N/mm 2) can be assumed to be,

(a) 25000 (B) 28500 (C) 30000 (D) 36000



1.7 The shear modulus (G), modulus of elasticity (E) and the Poisson's ratio (v) of a material are related as,



G=E/ [2(1+v)]
E=G / [2(1+v)]
G=E / [2(1-v)] *
G=E / [2(v-1)]
When designing steel structures, one must ensure that local buckling in webs does not take place. This check may not be very critical when using rolled steel sections because,


Quality control at the time of manufacture of rolled sections is very good
Web depths available are small
Web stiffeners are in-built in rolled sections
Depth to thickness ratios (of the web) are appropriately adjusted


1.9 An ISMB 500 is used as a beam in a multi-storey construction. From the viewpoint of structural design, it can be considered to be 'laterally restrained' when,



the tension flange is 'laterally restrained'
the compression flange is 'laterally restrained'
the web is adequately stiffened
the conditions in (A) and (C) are met.


1.10 Data from a sieve analysis conducted on a given sample of soil showed that 67% of the particles passed through 75 micron IS sieve. The liquid limit and plastic limit of the finer fraction was found to be 45 and 33 percents respectively. The group symbol of the given soil as per IS:1498-1970 is:



SC (B) MI (C) CH (D) MH


1.11 The void ratios at the densest, loosest and the natural states of a sand deposit are 0.2, 0.6 and 0.4, respectively. The relative density of the deposit is:



100%
75%
50%
25%


1.12 The following data were obtained from a liquid limit test conducted on a soil sample.



Number of blows

17

22

25

28

34

Water content (%)

63.8

63.1

61.9

60.6

60.5



The liquid limit of the soil is:

(A) 63.1%

(B) 62.8%

(C) 61.9%

(D) 60.6%



1.13 The specific gravity and insitu void ratio of a soil deposit are 2.71 and 0.85 respectively. The value of the critical hydraulic gradient is:



0.82
0.85
0.95
0.92


1.14 The observed value of the standard penetration number (N) at 10m depth of a silty

sand deposit is 13. The unit weight of the soil is 16 kN/in 3.The N value after correcting for the presence of fines will be:

(A) 12

(B) 13

(C) 14

(D) 15



1.15 The force 'F' required at equilibrium on the semi-cylindrical gate shown below is:



9.81 kN
0.0 kN
19.62 kN
none of the above


1.16 Velocity distribution in a boundary layer flow over a plate is given by

(u/u m) = 1.5 h - 0.5 h 3 J

where, h = y/ d ; y is the distance measured normal to the plate; d is the boundary layer thickness; and U m is the maximum velocity at y = d . If the shear stress t , acting on the plate is given by

t =K( m u m)/ d

where, m is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid, K takes the value of:

0
1
(C) 1.5

(0) none of the above



l.l7 A 6-hour Unit Hydrograph (UH) of a catchment is triangular in shape with a total time base of 36 hours and a peak discharge of 18 m 3 /s. The area of the catchment (in sq. km) is:



233
117
1.2
sufficient information not available


1.18 When there is an increase in the atmospheric pressure, the water level in a well penetrating in a confined aquifer:



increases
decreases
may increase or decrease depending on the nature of the-1fquifer
does not undergo any change


1.19 In a domestic wastewater sample, COD and BOD were measured. Generally which of the following statement is true for their relative magnitude?



COD = BOD
COD > BOD
COD <BOD
Nothing can be said


1.20 In disinfection, which of the following forms of chlorine is most effective in killing the pathogenic bacteria?



Cr
OCI
NH 2CI
HOCI


1.21 A Trickling filter is designed to remove:



Settleable Solids
Colloidal Solids
Dissolved Organic Matter
None of the above


1.22 In natural water, hardness is mainly caused by:



Ca ++ and Mn ++
Ca ++ and Fe ++
Na + and K +
Ca ++ and Mg ++




1.23 Bitumen is derived from:



destructive distillation of coal tar
destructive distillation of petroleum
fractional distillation of petroleum
naturally occurring ores


1.24 Dowel bars in concrete pavement are placed



along the direction of traffic
perpendicular to the direction of traffic
along 45° to the direction of traffic
can be placed along any direction


1.25 Stopping sight distance and frictional co-efficients are



directly proportional to each other
inversely proportional to each other
unrelated
either directly or inversely proportional to each other depending on the nature of pavement


CE-2. This question consists of TWENTY FIVE sub-questions (2.1 - 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions four possible answers (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Answer each sub question by darkening the appropriate bubble on the OBJECTIVE RESPONSE SHEET (ORS) using a soft HB pencil. Do not use the ORS for any rough work. You may use the Answer Book for any rough work, if needed.



2.1 The value of the following improper integral is







¼
0
-¼
1


The directional derivative of the following function at (1,2) in the direction of (4i+3j) is:




4/5
4
2/5
1


2.3 The Laplace Transform of the following function is





(A) for all s>0

(B) for all s < p

(c) for all s>0

(d) for all s >0

2.4 The limit of the following sequence as n ® ¥ is:



0
1
¥
- ¥

2.5 A steel beam (with a constant El, and span L) is fixed at both ends and carries a uniformly distributed load (w kN/m), which is gradually increased till the beam reaches the stage of plastic collapse (refer to the following figure). Assuming 'B' to be at mid-span, which of the following is true,



Hinges are formed at A, B and C together
Hinges are formed at B and then at A and C together
Hinges are formed at A and C together and then at B
Hinges are formed at A and C only


2.6 As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, in the limit state method for. design of beams, the limiting value of the depth of neutral axis in a reinforced concrete beam of effective depth 'd’ given as: .



0.53d
0.48d
0.46d
any of the, above depending on the different grades of steel


2.7 ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm (Cross sectional area = 1908 mm 2) serves as tensile member. This angle is welded to a gusset plate along A and B appropriately as shown. Assuming the yield strength of the steel to be 260 N/ mm2 the tensile strength of this member can be taken to be approximately,

(A) 500 kN



(B) 300 kN

(C) 225 kN

(D) 375 kN



2.8 ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm (Cross sectional area = 1908 mm 2) is welded along A and B (Refer to figure for question 2.7), such that the lengths of the weld along A and B are 1 1 and 1 2, respectively. Which of the following is a possibly acceptable combination of 1 1 and 1 2.



(A) 1 1 = 60 mm and 1 2 = 150 mm

(B) 1 1= 150 mm and 1 2 = 60 mm

(C) 1 1 = 150 mm and 1 2 = 150 mm

(D) Any of the above, depending on the size of the weld.



2.9 In the propped cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w N/m, shown in the following Figure, the reaction at the support B is



(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)



2.10 An infinite slope is to be constructed in a soil. The effective stress strength parameters of the soil are c’=O and f '= 30°. The saturated unit weight of the slope is 20 kN/m 3 and the unit weight of water is 10 kN/m 3. Assuming that seepage is occurring parallel to the slope, the maximum slope angle for a factor of safety of 1.5 would be:



(A) 10.89°

(B) 11.30°

12.48°
14.73'°


2.11 If the effective stress strength parameters of a soil are c'=10 kPa and 0'=30°, the shear strength on a plane within the saturated soil mass at a point where the total normal stress is 300 kPa and pore water pressure is 150 kPa will be:



90.5 kPa
96.6 kPa
101.5 kPa
1O5.5.kPa


2.12 The time for a clay layer to achieve 85% consolidation is 10 years. If the layer was half as thick, 10 times more permeable and 4 times more compressible then the time that would be required to achieve the same degree of consolidation is:



1 year
5 years
12 years
16 years


2.13 In a triaxial test carried out on a cohesion less soil sample with a cell pressure of

20 kPa, the observed value of applied stress at the point of failure was 40 kPa. The angle of internal friction of the soil is:



10°
15°
25°
30°


2.14 In a falling head permeability test the initial head of 1.0 m dropped to 0.35 m in 3 hours, the diameter of the stand pipe being 5 mm. The soil specimen was 200 mm long and of 100 mm diameter. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is:



4.86 x 10 -5 cm/s
4.86 X 10 -6 cm/s
4.86 x 10 -7 cm/s
4.86 x 10 -8 cm/s


2.15 In a lined rectangular canal, the Froude number of incoming flow is 3.0. A hydraulic jump forms when it meets the pool of water. The depth of flow. after the jump formation is 1.51 m. Froude number of flow after the hydraulic jump is:



0.30
0.71
0.41
none of the above




2.16 A pump can lift water at a discharge of 0.15 m 3/s to a head of 25 m. The critical cavitation number ( s c ) for the pump is found to be 0.144. The pump is to be installed at a location where the barometric pressure is 9.8 m of water and the vapour pressure of water is 0.30 m of water. The intake pipe friction loss is 0.40 m. Using the minimum value of NPSH (Net Positive Suction Head), the maximum allowable elevation above the sump water surface at which the pump can be located is:



(A) 9.80 m



(B) 6.20 m



(C) 5.50 m



(D) none of the above



2.17 During a 6- hour storm, the rainfall intensity was 0.8 cm/hour on a catchment of area 8.6 km 2. The measured runoff volume during this period was 2,56,000 m 3. The total rainfall was lost due to infiltration, evaporation, and transpiration (in cm/hour) is



0.80
0.304
0.496.
sufficient il1fonnation not available


2.18 The rainfall on five successive days in a catchment were measured as 3, 8, 12,6, and 2 cms. If the total runoff at the outlet from the catchment was 15 cm, ,the value of the f -index (in mm/hour) is



0.0
1.04
1.53
sufficient information not available


2.19 A canal was designed to supply the irrigation needs of 1200 hectares of land growing rice of 140 days base period having a Delta of 134 cms. If this canal water is used to irrigate wheat of base period 120 days having a Delta of 52 cm, the area (in Hectares) that can be irrigated is:



(A) 2650



(B) 3608



(C) 543



(D) none of the above



2.20 For a water treatment plant having a flow rate of 432 m 3/hr, what is the required

plan area of a Type I settling tank to remove 90% of the particles having a settling velocity of 0.12 cm/sec is



(A) 120 m 2

(B) 111 m 2

(C) 90 m 2

(D) 100 m 2

2.21 The theoretical oxygen demand of a 0.001 mol/L glucose solution is



(A) 180 mg/L

(B) 192 mg/L

(C) 90 mg/L

(D) 96 mg/L





2.22 waste water sample has an initial BOD of 222 mg/L. The first order BOD decay coefficient is 0.4/day. The BOD consumed (in mg/L) in 5 'days is:



150
192
30
50


2.23 car is moving at a speed of 72 km/hr on a road having 2% upward gradient. The driver applies brakes when he sees an obstruction. If his reaction time is 1.5 seconds, assuming that the co-efficient of friction between the pavement and tire as 0.15, calculate the distance traversed before the car finally stops.



24 m
150 m
1056 m
324 m


2.24 The average daily traffic on a stretch of road is 300 commercial vehicles per lane per day. Design traffic repetitions for 10 years when vehicle damage factor is 2,5 and traffic growth rate is 7%, is .



3.8 msa
23.5 msa
45.4 msa
16 msa




2.25 In a concrete pavement

temperature stress is tensile at bottom during day time
load stress is compressive at bottom


(A) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct

(B) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is wrong.

(C) Statement (b) is wrong and (a) is correct

(D) Both statements (a) and (b) are incorrect

atrix algebra, Systems of linear equations, Eigen values and eigen vectors.

Calculus: Functions of single variable, Limit, continuity and differentiability, Mean value theorems, Evaluation of definite and improper integrals, Partial derivatives, Total derivative, Maxima and minima, Gradient, Divergence and Curl, Vector identities, Directional derivatives, Line, Surface and Volume integrals, Stokes, Gauss and Green's theorems.

Differential equations: First order equations (linear and nonlinear), Higher order linear differential equations with constant coefficients, Cauchy's and Euler's equations, Initial and boundary value problems, Laplace transforms, Solutions of one dimensional heat and wave equations and Laplace equation.

Complex variables: Analytic functions, Cauchy's integral theorem, Taylor and Laurent series.

Probability and Statistics: Definitions of probability and sampling theorems, Conditional probability, Mean, median, mode and standard deviation, Random variables, Poisson, Normal and Binomial distributions.

Numerical Methods: Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations Integration by trapezoidal and Simpson's rule, single and multi-step methods for differential equations.
Structural Engineering

Mechanics: Bending moment and shear force in statically determinate beams. Simple stress and strain relationship: Stress and strain in two dimensions, principal stresses, stress transformation, Mohr's circle. Simple bending theory, flexural and shear stresses, unsymmetrical bending, shear centre. Thin walled pressure vessels, uniform torsion, buckling of column, combined and direct bending stresses.

Structural Analysis:Analysis of statically determinate trusses, arches, beams, cables and frames, displacements in statically determinate structures and analysis of statically indeterminate structures by force/ energy methods, analysis by displacement methods (slope deflection and moment distribution methods), influence lines for determinate and indeterminate structures. Basic concepts of matrix methods of structural analysis.

Concrete Structures: Concrete Technology- properties of concrete, basics of mix design. Concrete design- basic working stress and limit state design concepts, analysis of ultimate load capacity and design of members subjected to flexure, shear, compression and torsion by limit state methods. Basic elements of prestressed concrete, analysis of beam sections at transfer and service loads.

Steel Structures: Analysis and design of tension and compression members, beams and beam- columns, column bases. Connections- simple and eccentric, beam'column connections, plate girders and trusses. Plastic analysis of beams and frames.
Geotechnical Engineering

Soil Mechanics:Origin of soils, soil classification, three-phase system, fundamental definitions, relationship and interrelationships, permeability & seepage, effective stress principle, consolidation, compaction, shear strength.

Foundation Engineering: Sub-surface investigations- scope, drilling bore holes, sampling, penetration tests, plate load test. Earth pressure theories, effect of water table, layered soils. Stability of slopes-infinite slopes, finite slopes. Foundation types-foundation design requirements. Shallow foundations-bearing capacity, effect of shape, water table and other factors, stress distribution, settlement analysis in sands & clays. Deep foundations pile types, dynamic & static formulae, load capacity of piles in sands & clays, negative skin friction.
Water Resources Engineering

Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics: Properties of fluids, principle of conservation of mass, momentum, energy and corresponding equations, potential flow, applications of momentum and Bernoulli's equation, laminar and turbulent flow, flow in pipes, pipe networks. Concept of boundary layer and its growth. Uniform flow, critical flow and gradually varied flow in channels, specific energy concept, hydraulic jump. Forces on immersed bodies, flow measurements in channels, tanks and pipes. Dimensional analysis and hydraulic modeling. Kinematics of flow, velocity triangles and specific speed of pumps and turbines.

Hydrology: Hydrologic cycle, rainfall, evaporation, infiltration, stage discharge relationships, unit hydrographs, flood estimation, reservoir capacity, reservoir and channel routing. Well hydraulics.

Irrigation: Duty, delta, estimation of evapo-transpiration. Crop water requirements. Design of: lined and unlined canals, waterways, head works, gravity dams and spillways. Design of weirs on permeable foundation. Types of irrigation system, irrigation methods. Water logging and drainage, sodic soils.
Environmental Engineering

Water requirements: Quality standards, basic unit processes and operations for water treatment. Drinking water standards, water requirements, basic unit operations and unit processes for surface water treatment, distribution of water. Sewage and sewerage treatment, quantity and characteristics of wastewater. Primary, secondary and tertiary treatment of wastewater, sludge disposal, effluent discharge standards. Domestic wastewater treatment, quantity of characteristics of domestic wastewater, primary and secondary treatment Unit operations and unit processes of domestic wastewater, sludge disposal.

Air Pollution: Types of pollutants, their sources and impacts, air pollution meteorology, air pollution control, air quality standards and limits.

Municipal Solid Wastes: Characteristics, generation, collection and transportation of solid wastes, engineered systems for solid waste management (reuse/ recycle, energy recovery, treatment and disposal).

Noise Pollution: Impacts of noise, permissible limits of noise pollution, measurement of noise and control of noise pollution.
Transportation Engineering

Highway Planning: Geometric design of highways, testing and specifications of paving materials, design of flexible and rigid pavements.

Traffic Engineering: Traffic characteristics, theory of traffic flow, intersection design, traffic signs and signal design, highway capacity.
Surveying

Importance of surveying, principles and classifications, mapping concepts, coordinate system, map projections, measurements of distance and directions, leveling, theodolite traversing, plane table surveying, errors and adjustments, curves.

ed pressure vessels, uniform torsion, buckling of column, combined and direct bending stresses.

Structural Analysis:

Analysis of statically determinate trusses, arches, beams, cables and frames, displacements in statically determinate structures and analysis of statically indeterminate structures by force/ energy methods, analysis by displacement methods (slope deflection and moment distribution methods), influence lines for determinate and indeterminate structures. Basic concepts of matrix methods of structural analysis.

Concrete Structures:

Concrete Technology- properties of concrete, basics of mix design. Concrete design- basic working stress and limit state design concepts, analysis of ultimate load capacity and design of members subjected to flexure, shear, compression and torsion by limit state methods. Basic elements of prestressed concrete, analysis of beam sections at transfer and service loads.

Steel Structures:

Analysis and design of tension and compression members, beams and beam- columns, column bases. Connections- simple and eccentric, beam'column connections, plate girders and trusses. Plastic analysis of beams and frames.

Quality standards, basic unit processes and operations for water treatment. Drinking water standards, water requirements, basic unit operations and unit processes for surface water treatment, distribution of water. Sewage and sewerage treatment, quantity and characteristics of wastewater. Primary, secondary and tertiary treatment of wastewater, sludge disposal, effluent discharge standards. Domestic wastewater treatment, quantity of characteristics of domestic wastewater, primary and secondary treatment Unit operations and unit processes of domestic wastewater, sludge disposal.

Air Pollution:

Types of pollutants, their sources and impacts, air pollution meteorology, air pollution control, air quality standards and limits.

Municipal Solid Wastes:

Characteristics, generation, collection and transportation of solid wastes, engineered systems for solid waste management (reuse/ recycle, energy recovery, treatment and disposal).

Noise Pollution:

Impacts of noise, permissible limits of noise pollution, measurement of noise and control of noise pollution.

Perfect study for the gate is....According to me, the book of Grahewal publication for the maths subject.And the solved question papers u got on this site. For the hydraulic subject R. k. bansal is the good book for it and for Mechanic subject also this R. k. bansal book is good.

which study material should i refer for ies civil and psu